Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 Exam Questions and Answers, 300-206 pdf – Softwaregeneralist

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Softwaregeneralist collects the latest and effective exam exercises to help you improve your skills, and we adhere to the year-round update and focus on our learning more.Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 prior to attending this course, participants must have the following knowledge and skills:

  • Working knowledge of basic IP networking
  • Knowledge of video conferencing and streaming fundamentals

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QUESTION 1
Which three options are hardening techniques for Cisco IOS routers? (Choose three.)
A. limiting access to infrastructure with access control lists
B. enabling service password recovery
C. using SSH whenever possible
D. encrypting the service password
E. using Telnet whenever possible
F. enabling DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 2
What is the default behavior of an access list on the Cisco ASA security appliance?
A. It will permit or deny traffic based on the access-list criteria.
B. It will permit or deny all traffic on a specified interface.
C. An access group must be configured before the access list will take effect for traffic control.
D. It will allow all traffic.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer is asked to configure NetFlow to sample one of every 100 packets on a router’s fa0/0
interface. Which configuration enables sampling, assuming that NetFlow is already configured and running
on the router’s fa0/0 interface?
A. flow-sampler-map flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
B. flow monitor flow1mode random one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0 ip flow monitor flow1
C. flow-sampler-map flow1one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
D. ip flow-export source fas0/0 one-out-of 100
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What is the default behavior of an access list on a Cisco ASA?
A. It will permit or deny traffic based on the access list criteria.
B. It will permit or deny all traffic on a specified interface.
C. It will have no affect until applied to an interface, tunnel-group or other traffic flow.
D. It will allow all traffic.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 300-206 exam questionWhat is the effect of this configuration?A. The firewall will inspect IP traffic only between networks 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.2.0.
B. The firewall will inspect all IP traffic except traffic to 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.2.0.
C. The firewall will inspect traffic only if it is defined within a standard ACL.
D. The firewall will inspect all IP traffic.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about the software requirements for a firewall failover configuration are true?
(Choose three.)
A. The firewalls must be in the same operating mode.
B. The firewalls must have the same major and minor software version.
C. The firewalls must be in the same context mode.
D. The firewalls must have the same major software version but can have different minor versions.
E. The firewalls can be in different context modes.
F. The firewalls can have different Cisco AnyConnect images.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 7
Which two configurations are necessary to enable password-less SSH login to an IOS router? (Choose
two.)
A. Enter a copy of the administrator’s public key within the SSH key-chain
B. Enter a copy of the administrator’s private key within the SSH key-chain
C. Generate a 512-bit RSA key to enable SSH on the router
D. Generate an RSA key of at least 768 bits to enable SSH on the router
E. Generate a 512-bit ECDSA key to enable SSH on the router
F. Generate a ECDSA key of at least 768 bits to enable SSH on the router
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 8
When configuring security contexts on the Cisco ASA, which three resource class limits can be set using a
rate limit? (Choose three.)
A. address translation rate
B. Cisco ASDM session rate
C. connections rate
D. MAC-address learning rate (when in transparent mode)
E. syslog messages rate
F. stateful packet inspections rate
Correct Answer: CEF

 

QUESTION 9
What is a required attribute to configure NTP authentication on a Cisco ASA?
A. Key ID
B. IPsec
C. AAA
D. IKEv2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
What is the maximum jumbo frame size for IPS standalone appliances with 1G and 10G fixed or add-on
interfaces?
A. 1024 bytes
B. 1518 bytes
C. 2156 bytes
D. 9216 bytes
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
What is the primary purpose of stateful pattern recognition in Cisco IPS networks?
A. mitigating man-in-the-middle attacks
B. using multi packet inspection across all protocols to identify vulnerability-based attacks and to thwart
attacks that hide within a data stream
C. detecting and preventing MAC address spoofing in switched environments
D. identifying Layer 2 ARP attacks
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which two features does Cisco Security Manager provide? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration and policy deployment before device discovery
B. Health and performance monitoring
C. Event management and alerting
D. Command line menu for troubleshooting
E. Ticketing management and tracking
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 13
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco device? (Choose three.)
A. NTP authentication is enabled.
B. NTP authentication is disabled.
C. NTP logging is enabled.
D. NTP logging is disabled.
E. NTP access is enabled.
F. NTP access is disabled.
Correct Answer: BDE

 

QUESTION 14
Your company is replacing a high-availability pair of Cisco ASA 5550 firewalls with the newer Cisco ASA
5555X models. Due to budget constraints, one Cisco ASA 5550 will be replaced at a time.
Which statement about the minimum requirements to set up stateful failover between these two firewalls is
true?
A. You must install the USB failover cable between the two Cisco ASAs and provide a 1 Gigabit
Ethernetinterface for state exchange.
B. It is not possible to use failover between different Cisco ASA models.
C. You must have at least 1 Gigabit Ethernet interface between the two Cisco ASAs for state exchange.
D. You must use two dedicated interfaces. One link is dedicated to state exchange and the other link isforheartbeats.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 15
Which command configures the SNMP server group1 to enable authentication for members of the access
list east?
A. snmp-server group group1 v3 auth access east
B. snmp-server group1 v3 auth access east
C. snmp-server group group1 v3 east
D. snmp-server group1 v3 east access
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 16
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that
belongs to more than one context. Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which
statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 17
Which kind of Layer 2 attack targets the STP root bridge election process and allows an attacker to control
the flow of traffic?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. denial of service
C. distributed denial of service
D. CAM overflow
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 18
Which component does Cisco ASDM require on the host Cisco ASA 5500 Series or Cisco PIX security
appliance?
A. a DES or 3DES license
B. a NAT policy server
C. a SQL database
D. a Kerberos key
E. a digital certificate
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 19
What are three attributes that can be applied to a user account with RBAC? (Choose three.)
A. domain
B. password
C. ACE tag
D. user rolesE. VDC group tag
F. expiry date
Correct Answer: BDF

 

QUESTION 20
A switch is being configured at a new location that uses statically assigned IP addresses. Which will
ensure that ARP inspection works as expected?
A. Configure the ‘no-dhcp’ keyword at the end of the ip arp inspection command
B. Enable static arp inspection using the command ‘ip arp inspection static vlan vlan- number
C. Configure an arp access-list and apply it to the ip arp inspection command
D. Enable port security
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 21
At which firewall severity level will debugs appear on a Cisco ASA?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 22
A network printer has a DHCP server service that cannot be disabled. How can a layer 2 switch be
configured to prevent the printer from causing network issues?
A. Remove the ip helper-address
B. Configure a Port-ACL to block outbound TCP port 68
C. Configure DHCP snooping
D. Configure port-security
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 23
You have explicitly added the line deny ipv6 any log to the end of an IPv6 ACL on a router interface. Which
two ICMPv6 packet types must you explicitly allow to enable traffic to traverse the interface? (Choose two.)
A. router solicitation
B. router advertisement
C. neighbor solicitation
D. neighbor advertisement
E. redirect
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 24
Which two device types can Cisco Prime Security Manager manage in Multiple Device mode? (Choose
two.)
A. Cisco ESA
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco WSA
D. Cisco ASA CX
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 25
What are two security features at the access port level that can help mitigate Layer 2 attacks? (Choose
two.)
A. DHCP snooping
B. IP Source Guard
C. Telnet
D. Secure Shell
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 26
When it is configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the switchport port-security maximum
command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 27
In which way are management packets classified on a firewall that operates in multiple context mode?
A. by their interface IP address
B. by the routing table
C. by NAT
D. by their MAC addresses
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 29
Which command enables the HTTP server daemon for Cisco ASDM access?
A. http server enable
B. http server enable 443
C. crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024
D. no http server enable
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 30
Which ASA feature is used to keep track of suspected attackers who create connections to too many hosts
or ports?
A. complex threat detection
B. scanning threat detection
C. basic threat detection
D. advanced threat detection
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 31
Which command sets the source IP address of the NetFlow exports of a device?
A. ip source flow-export
B. ip source netflow-export
C. ip flow-export source
D. ip netflow-export source
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 32
You have installed a web server on a private network. Which type of NAT must you implement to enable
access to the web server for public Internet users?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. network object NAT
D. twice NAT
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 33
When you configure a Botnet Traffic Filter on a Cisco firewall, what are two optional tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the use of dynamic databases.
B. Add static entries to the database.
C. Enable DNS snooping.
D. Enable traffic classification and actions.
E. Block traffic manually based on its syslog information.
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 34
Which two configurations are the minimum needed to enable EIGRP on the Cisco ASA appliance?
(Choose two.)
A. Enable the EIGRP routing process and specify the AS number.
B. Define the EIGRP default-metric.
C. Configure the EIGRP router ID.
D. Use the neighbor command(s) to specify the EIGRP neighbors.
E. Use the network command(s) to enable EIGRP on the Cisco ASA interface(s).
Correct Answer: AE

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Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Exam Questions and Answers, 300-135 pdf – Softwaregeneralist

Published by:

pass4itsure 300-135 exam question

Softwaregeneralist collects the latest and effective exam exercises to help you improve your skills, and we adhere to the year-round update and focus on our learning more.Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 prior to attending this course, participants must have the following knowledge and skills:

  • Layer 2 switching
  • VLANs, VLAN access control lists, port security
  • Switch security issues
  • Link aggregation protocols
  • Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
  • Inter-VLAN routing solutions
  • First Hop Redundancy Protocols (FHRPs) – HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP
  • Branch office operations
  • Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
  • Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
  • Layer 3 path control
  • Redistribution
  • Internal and External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
  • IPv6 Networking

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QUESTION 1
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)pass4itsure 300-135 exam question

A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?pass4itsure 300-135 exam question

A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful.
What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 4
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 5
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site- to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 7
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model
does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. ApplicationD. Data-Link
E. Network
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CDP is a protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco routers, bridges, access servers, and switches. CDP allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices,
in particular, neighbors running lower-layer, transparent protocols. With CDP, network management applications can learn the device type and the SNMP agent address of neighboring devices. This feature enables applications to send SNMP
queries to neighboring devices. In this case, the line protocol is up which means that the physical layer is operational (layer 1) but the data link layer is not. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.1E/native/
configuration/guide /cdp.html

 

QUESTION 8
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following?
A. Fault Management
B. Action Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Protocol Management
E. Security Management
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 9
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 10
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level.
They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the configuration statements shown in the graphic above.
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
R1(config)#end
R1#debug ip packet 199 detail
Which statement reflects what the effect is of this configuration sequence?
A. These commands will generate an error message because you cannot use an access list with any debug commands.
B. These commands will have no effect at all. The debug ip packet command will work as normal and display info for all IP packets.
C. These commands turn on debug ip packet only for packets between hosts 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1.
D. These commands will only work when you specify only one host rather than two.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 13
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp
neighbors command. In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 15
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 17
At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 18
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer
(OSI Layer3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E.
This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E.
This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E.
This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 19
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages.
What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SIA routes are due to the fact that reply packets are not received. This could be caused by a router which is unable to send reply packets. The router could have reached the limit of its capacity, or it could be malfunctioning.
Notes: If a router does not receive a reply to all outstanding queries within 3 minutes, the route goes to the stuck in active (SIA) state. The router then resets the neighbors that fail to reply by going active on all routes known through that
neighbor, and it re-advertises all routes to that neighbor.
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/103/eigrp3.html

 

QUESTION 20
You want to enhance the security within the Company LAN and prevent VLAN hopping. What two steps can be taken to help prevent this? (Select two)
A. Enable BPD guard
B. Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary
C. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN
D. Prevent automatic trunk configuration
E. Implement port security
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 21
Which of the following statements regarding documentation would not be considered a helpful step in the troubleshooting process?
A. Use the Cisco Auto Configuration tool.
B. Use the Cisco Rollback feature.
C. Automate documentation.
D. Schedule documentation checks.
E. Use the Cisco Configuration Archive tool.
F. Require documentation prior to a ticket being closed out.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 22
Given the multicast IP address of 224.193.5.10, what would the corresponding multicast MAC address be?
A. 00-00-0c-c0-05-0a
B. 00-00-0c-cl-05-0a
C. 01-00-5e-00-00-0c
D. 01-00-5e-41-05-0a
E. 00-00-0c-01-00-5e
F. 01-00-5e-cl-05-0a
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
First three octets are 01-00-05e for every single multicast address.Las three octets are the hexadecimal version of the las three octets of the IP address, in this case 193.5.10 is translated to c1-05-0a.

 

QUESTION 23
Which of the following are common issues that should be considered when establishing or troubleshooting site-to-site VPNs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. User authentication
B. Overlapping IP address space
C. GRE or IPsec configuration
D. MTU size
E. VPN client software
F. Authentication server configured ly
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 24
Which of the following topology situations would be a qood candidate for configuring DMVPN?
A. Extranet VPN
B. Managed overlay VPN topology
C. Hub-and-spoke VPN topology
D. Central-site VPN topology
E. Full mesh VPN topology
F. Remote-access VPN topology
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is not a valid reason for a packet to be punted?
A. The TCAM has reached capacity
B. An unknown destination MAC address
C. A packet being discarded due to a security violation
D. A Telnet packet from a session being initiated with the switch
E. Routing protocols sending broadcast traffic
F. A packet belonging to a GRE tunnel
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: CCNP TSHOOT Certification Guide: Advanced Cisco CatalystSwitch Troubleshooting

 

QUESTION 26
A new router is added to an existing HSRP standby group. One of the existing routers is in an active state, the other is in a standby state. Under what circumstance will the new router become the active router?
A. The new router will become active immediately because it’s the newest router introduced into the group.
B. The new router can become active only when the existing active router and the existing standby router become unavailable.
C. The new router has a lower priority value.
D. The new router will never become active unless the existing active router becomes unavailable.
E. The new router has preempt configured and a higher priority
F. The new router has a higher priority value.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 27
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Preferred server
A router can be configured to prefer an NTP source over another. A preferred server’s responses are discarded only if they vary dramatically from the other time sources.
Otherwise, the preferred server is used for synchronization without consideration of the other time sources. Preferred servers are usually specified when they are known to be extremely accurate. To specify a preferred server, use the prefer
keyword appended to the ntp server command. The following example tells the router to prefer TimeServerOne over
TimeServerTwo:
Router#config terminal
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.
Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerOne prefer
Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerTwo
Router(config)#^Z
Reference: Hardening Cisco Routers By Thomas Akin February 2002 0-596-00166-5,Chapter 10, NTP.

 

QUESTION 28
Which of the following is an accurate description of the command copy startupconfig ftp://kevin:[email protected]?
A. The configuration on the FTP server is copied to RAM.
B. The command is not valid on a Cisco router.
C. The configuration file in RAM is copied to an FTP server.
D. The configuration file in NVRAM is copied to an FTP server.
E. The configuration on the FTP server is copied to NVRAM.
F. The configuration will be copied from NVRAM to an FTP server with a filename of Kevin.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 29
Whichof the following are valid modes of packet switching on most routers?(Choose all that apply.)
A. Cisco Express Fonvarding
B. FIB switching
C. Cache switching
D. Optimized switching
E. Process switching
F. Fast switching
Correct Answer: AEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 30
What can you modify in an extended ping?
A. ValueB. Strict
C. Record
D. Timestamp
E. TTL
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 31
which two reason might a GRE tunnel interface enter an up/down state?
A. the tunnel mode is defined as transport
B. the route to the destination is through the tunnel itself
C. keepalives are disabled on the interface
D. the tunnel source is using a loopback interface
E. the tunnel source interface is down
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 32
Which two things should you check while troubleshooting uRPF (choose two):
A. uRPF enabled on interface
B. uRPF enabled globaly
C. CEF disabled
D. CEF enabled globaly
E. Strict or loose mode configured globaly
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 33
In which troubleshooting approach , you start troubleshooting from middle of OSI layer stack and then either go up or down layer for further troubleshooting ?
A. Divide and Conquer troubleshooting method
B. https://www.certbus.com/300-135.html
C. https://www.certbus.com/300-135.html
D. https://www.certbus.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 34
About allowing SSH access from network 10.10.15.0/24
A. Access-list 142 permit tcp 10.10.15.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 22
B. https://www.certbus.com/300-135.html
C. https://www.certbus.com/300-135.html
D. https://www.certbus.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 35
Which are valid AAA authentications methods?
A. Line
B. Local
C. https://www.certbus.com/300-135.html
D. https://www.certbus.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 36
( GRE Tunnel Diagram )
There was a digram and question asked which commands required to setup GRE tunnel between R2 & R3 :-
A. R2 :- int tunnel xxx
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ( Dont remember ip address CLass ABC ) ( This line was same in all R2 options so can be ignored )
Tunnel source ip-address 192.168.1.1 ( Cant remember exact ip , this should be ip address of G0/0 interface on R2 which is connected to R1 , Imp note)
Tunnel destination ip-address 192.168.2.3 ( Cant remember exact ip , this should be ip address of G0/0 interface on R3 which is connected to R1 , router in
middle , imp)
B. R3 :- int tunnel xxx
ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.252 ( cant remember correct ip , this line was same for all R3 options )
tunnel source g0/0 ( here this was interface connected to R1 middle router )
tunnel destination ip-address 192.168.1.1 ( This should be ip address of tunnel source address used on R2)
C. https://www.certbus.com/300-135.html
D. https://www.certbus.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 37
While troubleshooting you noticed *** as output of traceroute command. What is reason for that?
A. Probe is timed out
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 38
Securing control plane on R1 connected via SSH to the network 10.10.0.0/16. You should choose right answers and place in right configuring order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-135 exam question pass4itsure 300-135 exam questionExplanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 39
Choose 4 valid debug commands on switchpass4itsure 300-135 exam questionExplanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 40
Choose and place in the right order headers when monitoring GRE packet:pass4itsure 300-135 exam question pass4itsure 300-135 exam questionExplanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Cisco CCDP 300-115 Exam Questions and Answers, 300-115 pdf – Softwaregeneralist

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pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

Softwaregeneralist collects the latest and effective exam exercises to help you improve your skills, and we adhere to the year-round update and focus on our learning more.Cisco CCNP Routing and switching ccdp 300-115 prior to attending this course, participants must have the following knowledge and skills:

  • Describing network fundamentals
  • Establishing Internet and WAN connectivity (IPv4 and IPv6)
  • Managing network device security
  • Operating a medium-sized LAN with multiple switches, supporting VLANs, trunking, and spanning tree
  • Troubleshooting IP connectivity (IPv4 and IPv6)
  • Configuring and troubleshooting EIGRP and OSPF (IPv4 and IPv6)
  • Configuring devices for SNMP, Syslog, and NetFlow access
  • Managing Cisco device configurations, Cisco IOS images, and licenses

Passing the Cisco 300-115 exam is not an easy task, and 43 free online exercises can help you open the door to learning,
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300-115 SWITCH – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/switch2.html

Pass4itsure offers the latest Cisco Cisco CCDP 300-115 practice test free of charge (43Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Drag Droppass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

Explanation
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QUESTION 2
Drag Droppass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 3
Drag and Droppass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 4
Drag and Droppass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 5
Drag and Droppass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 6
Drag and Drop
Drag the attributes on the left to the types of VLAN designs that they describe on the right.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 7
Drag and Droppass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 8
Drag and Droppass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 9
Drag and Droppass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 10
Drag and Droppass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 11
Drag and Droppass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 12
Drag and Drop
Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the rightpass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 13
Drag and Droppass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop
PortFast / BPDU Guard / BPDU Filterpass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 15
Drag and Drop
PVST+ / Rapid PVST+ / MSTPpass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 16
Drag and Drop
STP Timerspass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 17
Drag and Drop
Port Cost / Switch Port Priority / Port Prioritypass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 18
Drag and Drop
Guard Root / Guard Looppass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 19
Drag and Drop
STP Timer Delaypass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 20
Drag and Drop
LLDP-TLVpass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
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QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left to the matching Layer 2 protocol on the rightpass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExplanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 22
Lab Simulation – AAA dot1x
SWITCH.com is an IT company that has an existing enterprise network comprised of two layer 2 only switches; DSW1 and ASW1. The topology diagram indicates their layer 2 mapping. VLAN 20 is a new VLAN that will be used to provide the
shipping personnel access to the server. Corporate polices do not allow layer 3 functionality to be enabled on the switches.
For security reasons, it is necessary to restrict access to VLAN 20 in the following manner:
– Users connecting to VLAN 20 via portfO/1 on ASW1 must be authenticated before they are given access to the network.
Authentication is to be done via a Radius server:
– Radius server host: 172.120.40.46
– Radius key: rad123
– Authentication should be implemented as close to the host as possible.
– Devices on VLAN 20 are restricted to the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24.
– Packets from devices in the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24 should be allowed on VLAN 20.
– Packets from devices in any other address range should be dropped on VLAN 20.
– Filtering should be implemented as close to the serverfarm as possible
The Radius server and application servers will be installed at a future date. You have been tasked with implementing the above access control as a pre-condition to installing the servers. You must use the
available IOS switch features.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

A. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
1. Verification of Pre-configuration:
a. Check that the denoted vlan [vlan20] is created in both switches and ports [fa0/1 of ASW1] are assigned.
b. Take down the radius-server ip [172.120.39.46] and the key [rad123].
c. Take down the IP range [172.120.40.0/24] to be allowed the given vlan [vlan20]
2. Configure the Port based authentication on ASW1:
Enable AAA on the switch:
ASW1> enable
ASW1# conf t
ASW1(config)# aaa new-model
The new-model keyword refers to the use of method lists, by which authentication methods and sources
can be grouped or organized. Define the server along with its secret shared password:
ASW1(config)# aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
ASW1(config)# radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123
This command causes the RADIUS server defined on the switch to be used for 802.1x authentication.
Enable 802.1x on the switch:
ASW1(config)# dot1x system-auth-control
Configure Fa0/1 to use 802.1x:
ASW1(config)# interface fastEthernet 0/1
ASW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
ASW1(config-if)# dot1x port-control auto
Notice that the word “auto” will force connected PC to authenticate through the 802.1x exchange.
ASW1(config-if)# exit
ASW1# copy running-config startup-config
3. Filter the traffic and create vlan access-map to restrict the traffic only for a range on DSW1 Define an access-list:
DSW1> enable
DSW1# conf t
(syntax: ip access-list {standard | extended} acl-name)
DSW1(config)# ip access-list standard 10
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# exit
Define an access-map which uses the access-list above:
(syntax: vlan access-map map_name [0-65535] )
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 10
(syntax: match ip address {acl_number | acl_name})
DSW1(config-access-map)# match ip address 10
DSW1(config-access-map)# action forward
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 20
(drop other networks)
DSW1(config-access-map)# action drop
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
Apply a vlan-map into a vlan:
(syntax: vlan filter mapname vlan-list list)
DSW1(config)# vlan filter MYACCMAP vlan-list 20
DSW1# copy running-config startup-config
4. Note:
It is not possible to verify the configuration in this lab. All we have do the correct configurations. Most of the exam takers report that ” copy running-config startup- config” is not working. It does not a matter.
Do not try unwanted/wrong commands in the consoles. They are not real switches.

 

QUESTION 23
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2.
Which of the configuration is correct?

pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Within any VTP, the VTP domain name must match. So, step one is to find the correct VTP name on the other switches. Logging in to SW1 and using the “show vtp status” command we see this:

pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

So we know that the VTP domain must be CCNP. This leaves only choice D and E. We also see from the topology diagram that eth 0/0 of the new switch connects to a PC in VLNA 100, so we know that this port must be an access port in
VLAN 100, leaving only choice D as correct. Note that the VTP versions supported in this network are 1, 2, 3 so either VTP version 2 or 3 can be configured on the new switch.

 

QUESTION 24
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

Refer to the configuration. For which configured VLAN are untagged frames sent over trunk between SW1 and SW2?
A. VLAN1
B. VLAN 99
C. VLAN 999
D. VLAN 40
E. VLAN 50
F. VLAN 200
G. VLAN 300
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The native VLAN is used for untagged frames sent along a trunk. By issuing the “show interface trunk” command on SW1 and SW2 we see the native VLAN is 99.

pass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

 

QUESTION 25
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionYou are adding new VLANs. VLAN500 and VLAN600 to the topology in such way that you need to configure SW1 as primary root for VLAN 500 and secondary for VLAN 600 and SW2 as primary root for
VLAN 600 and secondary for VLAN 500. Which configuration step is valid?
A. Configure VLAN 500 & VLAN 600 on both SW1 & SW2
B. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 only
C. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW2 only
D. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 ,SW2 and SW4
E. On SW2; configure vtp mode as off and configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600; configure back to vtp server mode.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
By issuing the “show vtp status command on SW2, SW2, and SW4 we see that both SW1 and SW2 are operating in VTP server mode, but SW4 is a client, so we will need to add both VLANs to SW1 and SW2 pass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

 

QUESTION 26
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExamine the VTP configuration. You are required to configure private VLANs for a new server deployment connecting to the SW4 switch. Which of the following configuration steps will allow creating private VLANs?
A. Disable VTP pruning on SW1 only
B. Disable VTP pruning on SW2 only
C. Disable VTP pruning on SW4 only
D. Disable VTP pruning on SW2, SW4 and New_Switch
E. Disable VTP pruning on New_Switch and SW4 only.Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To create private VLANs, you will need to only disable pruning on the switch that contains the private VLANs. In this case, only SW4 will connect to servers in a private VLAN.

 

QUESTION 27
Lab Simulation – MLS and EIGRP
You have been tasked with configuring multilayer SwitchC, which has a partial configuration and has been attached to RouterC as shown in the topology diagram. You need to configure SwitchC so that Hosts H1 and H2 can successfully ping
the server S1. Also SwitchC needs to be able to ping server S1. Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add/delete vlans or create trunk links.
Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via EIGRP 65010 routing protocol.
You do not have access to RouteC. RouterC is correctly configured. No trunking has been configured on RouterC. Routed interfaces should use the lowest host on a subnet when possible. The following subnets are available to implement
this solution:
– 10.10.10.0/24
– 190.200.250.32/27
– 190.200.250.64/27
Hosts H1 and H2 are configured with the correct IP address and default gateway.
SwitchC uses Cisco as the enable password.
Routing must only be enabled for the specific subnets shown in the diagram.
Note: Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add or delete VLANs, changes VLAN port assignments or create trunks. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via the
EIGRP routing protocol.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

A. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In real life, there are two ways to configure interVLAN routing in this case:
+ Use RouterC as a “router on a stick” and SwitchC as a pure Layer2 switch. Trunking must be established between RouterC and SwitchC. + Only use SwitchC for interVLAN routing without using RouterC, SwitchC should be configured as a
Layer 3 switch (which supports ip routing function as a router). No trunking requires.
The question clearly states “No trunking has been configured on RouterC” so RouterC does not contribute to interVLAN routing of hosts H1 & H2 -> SwitchC must be configured as a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for interVLAN routing.
We should check the default gateways on H1 & H2. Click on H1 and H2 and type the “ipconfig” command to get their default gateways.
C:\>ipconfig
We will get the default gateways as follows:
Host1:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.33
Host2:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.65
Now we have enough information to configure SwitchC (notice the EIGRP AS in this case is 650)
Note: VLAN2 and VLAN3 were created and gi0/10, gi0/11 interfaces were configured as access ports so we don’t need to configure them in this sim.
SwitchC# configure terminal
SwitchC(config)# int gi0/1
-> without using this command, the simulator does not let you assign IP address on Gi0/1 interface.
SwitchC(config-if)#no switchport
->RouterC has used IP 10.10.10.1 so this is the lowest usable IP address.
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# exit
SwitchC(config)# int vlan 2
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.33 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# int vlan 3
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.65 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)#exit
(Notice: MLS will not work without this command)
SwitchC(config)# ip routing
SwitchC(config)# router eigrp 650
SwitchC(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31
NOTE: THE ROUTER IS CORRECTLY CONFIGURED, so you will not miss within it in the exam , also don’t modify/delete any port just do the above configuration. Also some reports said the “no auto-summary” command can’t be used in the
simulator, in fact it is not necessary because the network 190.200.0.0/16 is not used anywhere else in this topology.
In order to complete the lab , you should expect the ping to SERVER to succeed from the MLS , and from the PCs as well.
Also make sure you use the correct EIGRP AS number (in the configuration above it is 650 but it will change when you take the exam) but we are not allowed to access RouterC so the only way to find out the EIGRP AS is to look at the exhibit
above. If you use wrong AS number, no neighbor relationship is formed between RouterC and SwitchC.
In fact, we are pretty sure instead of using two commands “network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31” and “network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31” we can use one simple command “network 190.200.0.0” because it is the nature of distance vector routing
protocol like EIGRP: only major networks need to be advertised; even without “no auto-summary” command the network still works correctly. But in the exam the sim is just a flash based simulator so we should use two above commands, just
for sure. But after finishing the configuration, we can use “show run” command to verify, only the summarized network 190.200.0.0 is shown.

 

QUESTION 28
Lab Simulation – MLS and EIGRP
You have been tasked with configuring multilayer SwitchC, which has a partial configuration and has been attached to RouterC as shown in the topology diagram.
You need to configure SwitchC so that Hosts H1 and H2 can successfully ping the server S1.
Also SwitchC needs to be able to ping server S1.Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add/delete vlans or createtrunk links. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned
via EIGRP 650 routing protocol.
You do not have access to RouteC. RouterC is correctly configured. No trunking has been configured on RouterC. Routed interfaces should use the lowest host on a subnet when possible. The following subnets are available to implement
this solution:
– 10.10.10.0/24
– 190.200.250.32/27
– 190.200.250.64/27
Hosts H1 and H2 are configured with the correct IP address and default gateway.
SwitchC uses Cisco as the enable password.
Routing must only be enabled for the specific subnets shown in the diagram.
Note: Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add or delete VLANs, changes VLAN port assignments or create trunks. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via the
EIGRP routing protocol.

pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

A. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In real life, there are two ways to configure interVLAN routing in this case:
+ Use RouterC as a “router on a stick” and SwitchC as a pure Layer2 switch. Trunking must be established between RouterC and SwitchC. + Only use SwitchC for interVLAN routing without using RouterC, SwitchC should be configured as a
Layer 3 switch (which supports ip routing function as a router). No trunking requires.
The question clearly states “No trunking has been configured on RouterC” so RouterC does not contribute to interVLAN routing of hosts H1 & H2 -> SwitchC must be configured as a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for interVLAN routing.
We should check the default gateways on H1 & H2. Click on H1 and H2 and type the “ipconfig” command to get their default gateways.
C:\>ipconfig
We will get the default gateways as follows:
Host1:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.33
Host2:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.65
mls>enable
mls# configure terminal
mls(config)# int gi0/1
mls(config-if)#no switchport
mls(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0
mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)# exit
mls(config)# int vlan 2
mls(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.33 255.255.255.224
mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)# int vlan 3
mls(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.65 255.255.255.224
mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)#exit
mls(config)# ip routing
mls(config)# router eigrp 650
mls(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
mls(config-router)# network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31
mls(config-router)# network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31
mls(config-router)# no auto-summary
mls(config-router)# end
mls# copy run start

 

QUESTION 29
Lab Simulation – LACP with STP Sim
You work for SWITCH.com. They have just added a new switch (SwitchB) to the existing network as shown in the topology diagram.
RouterA is currently configured correctly and is providing the routing function for devices on SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA is currently configured correctly, but will need to be modified to support the addition of SwitchB. SwitchB has a
minimal configuration. You have been tasked with competing the needed configuring of SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA and SwitchB use Cisco as the enable password.
Configuration Requirements for SwitchA
The VTP and STP configuration modes on SwitchA should not be modified.
– SwitchA needs to be the root switch for vlans 11, 12, 13, 21, 22 and 23. All other vlans should be left are their default values.
Configuration Requirements for SwitchB
– Vlan 21
Name: Marketing will support two servers attached to fa0/9 and fa0/10
– Vlan 22
Name: Sales will support two servers attached to fa0/13 and fa0/14
– Vlan 23
Name: Engineering will support two servers attached to fa0/15 and fa0/16
– Access ports that connect to server should transition immediately to forwarding state upon detecting the connection of a device.
– SwitchB VTP mode needs to be the same as SwitchA.
– SwitchB must operate in the same spanning tree mode as SwitchA
– No routing is to be configured on SwitchB
– Only the SVI vlan 1 is to be configured and it is to use address 192.168.1.11/24
Inter-switch Connectivity Configuration Requirements
– For operational and security reasons trunking should be unconditional and Vlans 1, 21, 22 and 23 should tagged when traversing the trunk link.
– The two trunks between SwitchA and SwitchB need to be configured in a mode that allows for the maximum use of their bandwidth for all vlans. This mode should be done with a non-proprietary protocol,
with SwitchA controlling activation.
– Propagation of unnecessary broadcasts should be limited using manual pruning on this trunk link.pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionA. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SW-A (close to router)
SW-A#configure terminal
SW-A(config)#spanning-tree vlan 11-13,21-23 root primary
SW-A(config)#vlan 21
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Marketing
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit
SW-A(config)#vlan 22
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Sales
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit
SW-A(config)#vlan 23
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Engineering
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit
SW-A(config)#interface range Fa0/3 ?4
SW-A(config-if-range)#no switchport mode access
(These two commands must be deleted to form a trunking link)
SW-A(config-if-range)#no switchport access vlan 98
(cannot issued this command on this switch, but don`t worry coz I still got 100%)
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport mode trunk
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk native vlan 99
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23
SW-A(config-if-range)#channel-group 1 mode active
SW-A(config-if-range)#channel-protocol lacp
SW-A(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-A(config-if-range)#end
SW-B (far from router)
SW-B#configure terminal
SW-B(config)#vlan 21
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Marketing
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#vlan 22
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Sales
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#vlan 23
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Engineering
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#vlan 99
not necessary to name it but just name it same as SwitchA
SW-B(config-vlan)#name TrunkNative //
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/9 ?10
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 21
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/13 ?14
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 22
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/15 ?16
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 23
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit
SW-B(config)#vtp mode transparent
SW-B(config)#spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
(you can get this IP from SW-A with command show cdp neighbour detail) // not sure about this SW-B
(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
command because the question says “No routing is to be configured on SwitchB”.
SW-B(config)#interface vlan 1
SW-B(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.0
SW-B(config-if)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/3 ?4
(yes I can issued this command on this switch)
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode trunk
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk native vlan 99
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23
//mode passive because “SwitchA controlling activation”
SW-B(config-if-range)#channel-group 1 mode passive
SW-B(config-if-range)#channel-protocol lacp
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#end pass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionYou may have to configure Interface Port-Channel on both switches. Check the configuration first, if it does not exist, use these commands:
interface port-channel1
switchport mode trunk
//this command will prevent the “Native VLAN mismatched” error on both switches
switchport trunk native vlan 99
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23,99
Some notes for this sim:
+ You should check the initial status of both switches with these commands: show vtp status (transparent mode on switchA and we have to set the same mode on switchB), show spanning-tree [summary] (rapidpvst mode on switchA and we
have to set the same mode on switchB), show vlan (check the native vlan and the existence of vlan99), show etherchannel 1 port-channel and show ip int brief (check if Port-channel 1 has been created and make sure it is up), show run (to
check everything again).
+ When using “int range f0/x – y” command hit space bar before and after “-” otherwise the simulator does not accept it.
+ You must create vlan 99 for the switchB. SwitchA already have vlan 99 configured.
+ At the end, you can try to ping from SwitchB to RouterA (you can get the IP on RouterA via the show cdp neighbors detail on SwitchA), not sure if it can ping or not. If not, you can use the “ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1” on SwitchB.
+ The name of SwitchA and SwitchB can be swapped or changed so be careful to put your configuration into appropriate switch.

 

QUESTION 30
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto
provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following
question.pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionDuring routine maintenance, GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on DSW1 was shut down. All other interfaces were up.
DSW2 became the active HSRP device for VLAN 101 as desired. However, after GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on DSW1 was reactivated, DSW1 did not become the active router for VLAN 101 as desired. What needs to be done to make the group
for VLAN 101 function properly?
A. Enable preempt in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW1.
B. Disable preempt in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW2’s.
C. In the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW1, decrease the priority value to avaluethatis less ‘ than the priority value configured in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW2.
D. Decrease the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN 101 HSRP group on U DSWTs to a values less than the value in the track command for the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW2.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

A is correct. All other answers is incorrect. Because Vlan101 on DS1 ( left ) disable preempt. We need enable preempt to after it reactive, it will be active device. If not this command, it never become active device.

 

QUESTION 31
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto
provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following
question.pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionDuring routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on DSW1. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 remained the active device for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. You have
determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. What needs to be done to make the group function properly?
A. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 5 and less than 15. 0
B. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 9 and less than 15.
C. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 11 and less than 19.
D. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 190 and less than 200.
E. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 195 and less than 205.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

Use “show run” command to show. The left Vlan102 is console1 of DS1. Priority value is 200, we should decrement value in the track command from 11 to 18.
Because 200 – 11 = 189 < 190 ( priority of Vlan102 on DS2 ).

 

QUESTION 32
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto
provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following
question.pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionAll interfaces are active. DSW2 has not become the active device for the VLAN 103 HSRP group. As related to the VLAN 103 HSRP group, what can be done to make the group function properly?
A. On DSW1, disable preempt.
B. On DSW1, decrease the priority value to a value less than 190 and greater than 150.
C. On DSW2, increase the priority value to a value greater 200 and less than 250.
D. On DSW2, increase the decrement value in the track command to a value greater than 10 and less than 50.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From the output shown below of the HSRP status of DSW2, we see that the active router has a priority of 200, while the local priority is 190. We need to increase the priority of DSW2 to greater than 200, but it should be less than 250 so that if
the gig 1/0/1 interface goes down, DSW1 will become active. DSW2 is configured to decrement the priority by 50 if this interface goes down, so the correct answer is to increase the priority to more than 200, but less than 250. pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

 

QUESTION 33
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto
provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following
question.pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionDuring routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on DSW1 and DSW2. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 became the active router for the VLAN 104HSRP group. As related
to the VLAN 104HSRP group, what can to be done to make the group function properly?
A. On DSW1, disable preempt.
B. On DSW2, decrease the priority value to a value less than 150.
C. On DSW1, increase the decrement value in the track command to a value greater than 6.
D. On DSW1, decrease the decrement value in the track command to a value less than 1.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

We should NOT disable preempt on DS1. By do that, you will make Vlan104’s HSRP group fail function.
Example: if we are disable preempt on DS1. It can not become active device when G1/0/1 on DS2 fail. In this question, G0/1/0 on DS1 & DS2 is shutdown. Vlan104 (left) : 150 -1 = 149. Vlan104 (right) : 200 -155 = 145. Result is priority 149 >
145 ( Vlan104 on DS1 is active). If increase the decrement in the track value to a value greater than 6 ( > or = 6). Vlan104 (left) : 150 -6 = 144. Result is priority 144 < 145 ( vlan104 on DS2 is active).

 

QUESTION 34
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto
provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following
questionpass4itsure 300-115 exam questionWhat is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Use “show stantby brieft” command on console2. Very easy to see priority of Vlan105 is 100.

pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

 

QUESTION 35
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto
provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following
question.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

If GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on DSW2 is shutdown, what will be the resulting priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on router DSW2?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
As seen below, the current priority for VLAN 105 is 100, and the tracking feature for Gig 1/0/0 is enabled which will decrement the priority by 10 if this interface goes down for a priority value of 90 pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

 

QUESTION 36
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a
device failurepass4itsure 300-115 exam question What percentage of the outgoing traffic from the 172.16.10.0/24 subnet is being forwarded through R1?
A. R1-0%
B. R1-50 %, R2-50%
C. R2-100%
D. R1-100%
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Based on the following output, we see that R1 is the active standby router for the Ethernet 0/0 link, so all outgoing traffic will be forwarded to R1.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

 

QUESTION 37
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a
device failure.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 interface Etherne0/0 goes down and recovers, which of the statement regarding HSRP priority is true?
A. The interface will have the priority decremented by 40 for HSRP group 1.
B. The interface will have the priority decremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
C. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 40 for HSRP group 1
D. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
E. The interface will default to the a priority of 100 for HSRP group 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Here is the HSRP configuration seen on R1:pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

Here, when the Ethernet 0/0 interface goes down, the standby 1 track decrement command will lower the priority from 130 to 90. However, when it comes back up, it will then increment it by 40 back to 130 for HSRP group 1.

 

QUESTION 38
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a
device failure.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question What issue is causing Router R1 and R2 to both be displayed as the HSRP active router for group 2?
A. The HSRP group number mismatch
B. The HSRP group authentication is misconfigured
C. The HSRP Hello packets are blocked
D. The HSRP timers mismatch
E. The HSRP group priorities are different
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Based on the configuration output, we see that authentication is configured on R2, but not on R1:

pass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

 

QUESTION 39
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a
device failure.pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionWhat is the virtual mac-address of HSRP group 1?
A. 0000.0c07.ac02
B. 4000.0000.0010
C. 0000.0c07.ac01
D. 4000.0000.ac01
E. 4000.0000.ac02
F. 0000.0c07.0010
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Issuing the “show standby” command on either router shows us that the virtual MAC used by HSRP group 1 is 4000.0000.0010. pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

 

QUESTION 40
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a
device failure.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2.
Which of the configuration is correct?

pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Within any VTP, the VTP domain name must match. So, step one is to find the correct VTP name on the other switches. Logging in to SW1 and using the “show vtp status” command we see this:pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionSo we know that the VTP domain must be CCNP. This leaves only choice D and E. We also see from the topology diagram that eth 0/0 of the new switch connects to a PC in VLNA 100, so we know that this port must be an access port in
VLAN 100, leaving only choice D as correct. Note that the VTP versions supported in this network are 1, 2, 3 so either VTP version 2 or 3 can be configured on the new switch.

 

QUESTION 41
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a
device failure.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question Refer to the configuration. For which configured VLAN are untagged frames sent over trunk between SW1 and SW2?
A. VLAN1
B. VLAN 99
C. VLAN 999
D. VLAN 40
E. VLAN 50
F. VLAN 200
G. VLAN 300
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The native VLAN is used for untagged frames sent along a trunk. By issuing the “show interface trunk” command on SW1 and SW2 we see the native VLAN is 99.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

 

QUESTION 42
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a
device failure.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question You are adding new VLANs. VLAN500 and VLAN600 to the topology in such way that you need to configure SW1 as primary root for VLAN 500 and secondary for VLAN 600 and SW2 as primary root for
VLAN 600 and secondary for VLAN 500. Which configuration step is valid?
A. Configure VLAN 500 & VLAN 600 on both SW1 & SW2
B. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 only
C. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW2 only
D. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 ,SW2 and SW4
E. On SW2; configure vtp mode as off and configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600; configure back to vtp server mode.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
By issuing the “show vtp status command on SW2, SW2, and SW4 we see that both SW1 and SW2 are operating in VTP server mode, but SW4 is a client, so we will need to add both VLANs to SW1 and SW2.pass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam question pass4itsure 300-115 exam question

 

QUESTION 43
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a
device failure.pass4itsure 300-115 exam questionExamine the VTP configuration. You are required to configure private VLANs for a new server deployment connecting to the SW4 switch. Which of the following configuration steps will allow creating private VLANs?
A. Disable VTP pruning on SW1 only
B. Disable VTP pruning on SW2 only
C. Disable VTP pruning on SW4 onlyD. Disable VTP pruning on SW2, SW4 and New_Switch
E. Disable VTP pruning on New_Switch and SW4 only.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To create private VLANs, you will need to only disable pruning on the switch that contains the private VLANs. In this case, only SW4 will connect to servers in a private VLAN.

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QUESTION 1
You are developing a project that contains multiple SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages. The packages will be deployed to the SSIS catalog. One of the steps in each
package accesses an FTP site to download sales transaction data.
You create project parameters to store the username and password that are used to access the FTP site.
You need to ensure that the username and password values are encrypted when they are deployed.
What should you do?
A. Set the Sensitive property of the parameters to True.
B. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package to EncryptSensitiveWithUserKey.
C. Change the parameters to package parameters.
D. Change the project to the Legacy Deployment model.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse every night.
The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closest-
matching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the reference table is very large.
If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value.
The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50.
Many values are incorrectly matched.
You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading performance.
What should you do?
A. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137786.aspx

QUESTION 3
You install a SQL Server 2012 database engine instance on a production server. A month later, you install SQL Server 2012 Integration Services (SSIS).
You must develop an SSIS project and deploy it to the server by using the Project Deployment model.
Operations Log records that are outside the configured retention period must be cleaned automatically.
You need to create the SSIS catalog on the production server.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Enable XP Command Shell.
B. Enable CLR Integration.
C. Enable OLE Automation.
D. Start the SQL Server Browser service.
E. Enable Cross Database Ownership Chaining
F. Start the SQL Server Agent service
G. Enable Ad Hoc Remote Queries.
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package on a computer is failing periodically in production. The package was created less than one year ago and was deployed to the SSIS catalog.
Sometimes the package is started on a SQL Agent schedule; sometimes the package is started manually by an SSIS developer by using the Object Explorer in SQL Server Management Studio.
You need to identify the authenticated user responsible for starting the package each time it failed in the past.
Where can you find this information?
A. the SQL Server Log
B. the SSISDB.[catalog].[executions] view
C. the SSISDB.[catalog].[event_messages] view
D. the SQL Agent Job History
E. the SQL Agent Error Log
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You maintain a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package was developed by using SQL Server 2008 Business Intelligence Development Studio (BIDS).
The package includes custom scripts that must be upgraded.
You need to upgrade the package to SQL Server 2012.
Which tool should you use?
A. SSIS Upgrade Wizard in SQL Server 2008 BIDS
B. SSIS Upgrade Wizard in SQL Server Data Tools
C. SQL Server DTExecUI utility (dtexecui.exe)
D. SQL Server dtexec utility (dtexec.exe)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You are reviewing the design of an existing fact table named factSales, which is loaded from a SQL Azure database by a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package each
day. The fact table has approximately 1 billion rows and is dimensioned by product, sales date, and sales time of day.
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The database administrator is concerned about the growth of the database. Users report poor reporting performance against this database. Reporting requirements have recently
changed and the only remaining report that uses this fact table reports sales by product name, sale month, and sale year. No other reports will be created against this table.
You need to reduce the report processing time and minimize the growth of the database.
What should you do?
A. Partition the table by product type.
B. Create a view over the fact table to aggregate sales by month.
C. Change the granularity of the fact table to month.
D. Create an indexed view over the fact table to aggregate sales by month.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables. The first table contains sales per month and the second table contains orders per day.
Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively.
You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables.
What should you do?
A. Create a time mapping table.
B. Change the level of granularity in both fact tables to be the same.
C. Merge the fact tables.
D. Create a view on the sales table.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
You are designing a data warehouse for a software distribution business that stores sales by software title. It stores sales targets by software category. Software titles are classified
into subcategories and categories. Each software title is included in only a single software subcategory, and each subcategory is included in only a single category. The data warehouse will be a data source for an Analysis Services cube.
The data warehouse contains two fact tables:
factSales, used to record daily sales by software title factTarget, used to record the monthly sales targets by software category
Reports must be developed against the warehouse that reports sales by software title, category and subcategory, and sales targets.
You need to design the software title dimension. The solution should use as few tables as possible while supporting all the requirements.
What should you do?
A. Create three software tables, dimSoftware, dimSoftwareCategory, and dimSoftwareSubcategory and a fourth bridge table that joins software titles to their appropriate category and subcategory table records with foreign key constraints.
Direct the cube developer to use key granularity attributes.
B. Create three software tables, dimSoftware, dimSoftwareCategory, and dimSoftwareSubcategory. Connect factSales to all three tables and connect factTarget to dimSoftwareCategory with foreign key constraints. Direct the cube developer
to use key granularity attributes.
C. Create one table, dimSoftware, which contains Software Detail, Category, and Subcategory columns. Connect factSales to dimSoftware with a foreign key constraint. Direct the cube developer to use a non-key granularity attribute for
factTarget.
D. Create two tables, dimSoftware and dimSoftwareCategory. Connect factSales to dimSoftware and factTarget to dimSoftwareCategory with foreign key constraints. Direct the cube developer to use key granularity attributes.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
You are designing a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The data warehouse currently includes the dimUser and dimDistrict dimension tables and the factSales fact table. The
dimUser table contains records for each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse; and the dimDistrict table contains information about sales districts.
The system is accessed by users from certain districts, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain districts. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple districts.
What should you do?
A. Add a district column to the dimUser table.
B. Partition the factSales table on the district column.
C. Create a userDistrict table that contains primary key columns from the dimUser and dimDistrict tables.
D. For each district, create a view of the factSales table that includes a WHERE clause for the district.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You are reviewing the design of a customer dimension table in an existing data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?
A. Add StartDate and EndDate columns to the customer dimension.
B. Add an IsCurrent column to the customer dimension.
C. Enable Snapshot Isolation on the data warehouse.
D. Add CurrentValue and PreviousValue columns to the customer dimension.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
You are implementing the indexing strategy for a fact table in a data warehouse. The fact table is named Quotes. The table has no indexes and consists of seven columns:
[ID]
[QuoteDate]
[Open]
[Close][High]
[Low]
[Volume]
Each of the following queries must be able to use a columnstore index:
SELECT AVG ([Close]) AS [AverageClose] FROM Quotes WHERE [QuoteDate]
BETWEEN ‘20100101’ AND ‘20101231’.
SELECT AVG([High] – [Low]) AS [AverageRange] FROM Quotes WHERE
[QuoteDate] BETWEEN ‘20100101’ AND ‘20101231’.
SELECT SUM([Volume]) AS [SumVolume] FROM Quotes WHERE [QuoteDate]
BETWEEN ‘20100101’ AND ‘20101231’.
You need to ensure that the indexing strategy meets the requirements. The strategy must also minimize the number and size of the indexes.
What should you do?
A. Create one columnstore index that contains [ID], [Close], [High], [Low], [Volume], and
[QuoteDate].
B. Create three coiumnstore indexes:
One containing [QuoteDate] and [Close]
One containing [QuoteDate], [High], and [Low]
One containing [QuoteDate] and [Volume]
C. Create one columnstore index that contains [QuoteDate], [Close], [High], [Low], and
[Volume].
D. Create two columnstore indexes:
One containing [ID], [QuoteDate], [Volume], and [Close]
One containing [ID], [QuoteDate], [High], and [Low]
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg492088.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg492153.aspx

QUESTION 12
You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
Log archival must be automated.
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility.
C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
D. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Correct Answer: J
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms140246.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh231187.aspx

QUESTION 14
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that copies a large amount of rows from a SQL Azure database. The project uses the Package Deployment
Model. This project is deployed to SQL Server on a test server.
You need to ensure that the project is deployed to the SSIS catalog on the production server.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
B. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
C. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
D. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
E. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility.
F. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
H. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
I. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
J. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
K. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh231102.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh213290.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh213373.aspx

QUESTION 15
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
To process complex scientific data originating from a SQL Azure database, a custom task component is added to the project.
You need to ensure that the custom component is deployed on a test environment correctly.
What should you do?
A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.B. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
C. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
D. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
I. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
J. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms403356.aspx

QUESTION 16
You develop and deploy a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package is stored in the file system.
You need to execute the package without importing it to the SSIS server.
What should you use to execute the package? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. catalog.start_package
B. dtexec
C. SQL Server Management Studio
D. SQL Server Agent
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
You are developing a data flow transformation to merge two data sources. One source contains product data and the other source contains data about the country in which the
product was manufactured. Both data sources contain a two-character CountryCode column and both use SQL Server. Both data sources contain an ORDER BY clause to sort
the data by the CountryCode column in ascending order.
You use a Merge Join transformation to join the data
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You need to ensure that the Merge Join transformation works correctly without additional transformations.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Change the ORDER BY clause on the product source to order by ProductName.
B. Change the Merge Join transformation to a Merge transformation.
C. Set the appropriate SortKeyPosition properties on the data sources.
D. Set the IsSorted property on both data sources.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to retrieve product data from two different sources. One source is hosted in a SQL Azure database. Each source contains products for different distributors.
Products for each distributor source must be combined for insertion into a single product table destination.
You need to select the appropriate data flow transformation to meet this requirement.
Which transformation types should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Multicast
B. Merge Join
C. Term Extraction
D. union All
E. Merge
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms141703.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms141775.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms141020.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms141809.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137701.aspx

QUESTION 19
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
You need to design a package to change a variable value during package execution by using the least amount of development effort.
What should you use?
A. Expression task
B. Script task
C. Execute SQL task
D. Execute Process task
E. Term Extraction transformation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh213137.aspx

QUESTION 20
You are using SQL Server Data Tools to develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project.
The first package that you create in this project contains a package connection that accesses a flat file. Additional packages in the project must also access this file.
You need to define and reuse the flat file connection in all project packages.What should you do?
A. Convert the package Connection Manager in the first package to a project Connection Manager.
B. Copy the package Connection Manager and paste it into the second package.
C. Convert the project to the Package Deployment model.
D. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package Connection Manager to DontSaveSensitive to reuse the flat file connection.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uses the Fuzzy Lookup transformation.
The reference data to be used in the transformation does not change.
You need to reuse the Fuzzy Lookup match index to increase performance and reduce maintenance.
What should you do?
A. Select the GenerateAndPersistNewIndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation Editor.
B. Select the GenerateNewIndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation Editor.
C. Select the DropExistingMatchlndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation Editor.
D. Execute the sp_FuzzyLookupTableMaintenanceUninstall stored procedure.
E. Execute the sp_FuzzyLookupTableMaintenanceInvoke stored procedure.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137786.aspx

QUESTION 22
You are using a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that is stored in the SSIS catalog. An Environment has been defined in the SSIS catalog.
You need to add the Environment to the project.
Which stored procedure should you use?
A. catalog.set_environment_reference_type
B. catalog.set_environment_property
C. catalog.create_environment_reference
D. catalog.create_environment
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data into a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The package uses a Foreach container to process text files found in a folder. The package must be deployed to a single server by using the Project Deployment model.
Multiple SQL Server Agent jobs call the package. Each job is executed on a different schedule. Each job passes a different folder path to the package.
You need to configure the package to accept the folder path from each job.
Which package configuration should you use?
A. .dtsConfig file
B. Registry Entry
C. Environment Variable
D. Parent Package Variable
E. XML Configuration File
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms345179.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms141708.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh213214.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh213296.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh213293.aspx

QUESTION 24
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data from a relational database to a data warehouse.
You are importing data from a relational table named Projects. The table has change data capture enabled on all columns.
You need to process only the most recent values from rows that have been inserted or updated since the previous execution of the package.
Which query should you use as the data source?
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb522511.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb510627.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc645937.aspx

QUESTION 25
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a data warehouse.
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You need to establish the correct order for loading each table to maximize parallel processing.
Which order should you use?
A. 1. DimCurrency, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
2. DimOrganization
3. FactFinance
B. 1. DimCurrency, DimOrganization in parallel
2. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. FactFinance
C. 1. DimCurrency, FactFinance in parallel
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
D. 1. FactFinance
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. DimCurrency
E. 1. DimCurrency
2. DimOrganization
3. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
4. FactFinance
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms139892.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms141261.aspx

QUESTION 26
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uploads a file to a table named Orders in a SQL Azure database.
The company’s auditing policies have the following requirements:
An entry must be written to a dedicated SQL Server log table named OrderLog.
The entry must be written as soon as the file upload task completes.
You need to meet the company’s policy requirements.
Which event handler should you use?
A. OnPostExecute
B. OnWarning
C. OnExecStatusChanged
D. OnVariableValueChanged
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms140223.aspx

QUESTION 27
You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute SQL tasks and no other tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have
their TransactionOption property set to Supported.
You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back their changes.
What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137749.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/microsoft.sqlserver.dts.runtime.dtstransactionoption.aspx

QUESTION 28
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD).
You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic.
What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data into a data warehouse. You add an Execute SQL task to the control flow.
The task must execute a simple INSERT statement. The task has the following requirements:
The INSERT statement must use the value of a string package variable. The variable name is StringVar.
The Execute SQL task must use an OLE DB Connection Manager.
In the Parameter Mapping tab of the Execute SQL task, StringVar has been added as the only parameter.
You must configure the SQLStatement property of the Execute SQL task.
Which SQL statement should you use?
A. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES ($StringVar)
B. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (0)
C. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (@0)
D. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (?)
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms141003.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms140355.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc280502.aspx

QUESTION 30
You are installing the Data Quality Client on user desktops.
You need to ensure that the prerequisite software components are installed.
Which components must be present to meet this goal? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SQL Server Management Studio
B. Internet Explorer 6.0 SP1 or later
C. Microsoft Silverlight 5
D. .NET Framework 3.5 SP1
E. .NET Framework 4.0
F. Microsoft Silverlight 4
G. SQL Server Data Tools
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Before installing DQS, make sure that your computer meets the minimum system requirements.
Data Quality Client requirement:
NET Framework 4.0 (installed during the Data Quality Client installation, if not already installed) Internet Explorer 6.0 SP1 or later

QUESTION 31
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
You use a Data Profiling task to examine the data from a source system. You need to establish:
The minimum and maximum dates for the datetime columns in the source data
The minimum, maximum, and average values for numeric columns in the source data
You need to use the appropriate profile type in the Data Profiling task.
Which profile type should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate profile type in the answer area.)
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The data source for the data flow task is a table that has been configured as a change data capture (CDC) table. You are using a CDC Source component to obtain the
CDC data.
The data source will be polled once per hour. The data is updated with multiple important status changes per minute.
For each captured data change, the before and after values must be included.You need to configure the CDC Source component.
Which CDC processing mode should you select? (To answer, configure the appropriate option in the dialog box in the answer area.)
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pass4itsure 070-463 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
OnError and OnWarning events must be logged for viewing in the built-in SSIS reports by using SQL Server Management Studio.
You need to execute the package and minimize the number of event types that are logged.
Which setting should you use? (To answer, change the appropriate setting in the answer area.)
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
You are a data warehouse developer responsible for developing data cleansing processes.
Duplicate employees exist in an employee dimension.
You need to map, discover, and manage domain values based on the employee dimension.
Which Data Quality Services (DQS) option should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.)
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package contains a user-defined variable named ©Queue which has an initial value of 10.
The package control flow contains many tasks that must repeat execution until the ©Queue variable equals 0.
You need to enable the tasks to be grouped together for repeat execution.
Which item should you add to the package? (To answer, select the appropriate item in the answer area.)
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package control flow will contain many tasks. The tasks will execute consecutively and none will execute more than once. Certain groups of tasks will share variable and transaction scope.
You need to group tasks together while enabling them to be collapsed and expanded as a group.
Which item should you use from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, select the appropriate item in the answer area.)
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a SQL Server 2012 database.
The name of the target instance is passed to the package via an Environment variable.
The Environment variable provides the server name to the Project parameter named ServerName.
The OLE DB Project Connection Manager has been parameterized.
You need to configure the Connection Manager property to accept the parameter.Which property and parameter should you use? (To answer, configure the appropriate option or options in the dialog box in the answer area.)
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pass4itsure 070-463 question
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
You administer a large and complex SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) solution in the SSIS catalog.
You are instructed to execute a package by using PowerShell. You need to create the correct PowerShell command.
How should you place the four code segments in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate code segments from the list of code segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
You are the Master Data Services (MDS) administrator at your company.
An existing user needs to integrate data from other systems into MDS.
You need to give the user permissions to integrate data.
Which user management menu item should you select? (To answer, configure the appropriate option or options in the dialog box in the answer area.)
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pass4itsure 070-463 question
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QUESTION 40
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a SQL Server 2012 database.
The package is allowed to connect to only one database. An Environment variable contains the name of the database.
The OLE DB project connection manager has been parameterized.You need to configure the connection manager property to accept the value of the Environment variable.
Which property should you use? (To answer, configure the appropriate option or options in the dialog box in the answer area.)
pass4itsure 070-463 question
pass4itsure 070-463 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
You are building a fact table in a data warehouse.
The table must have a columnstore index. The table cannot be partitioned.
You need to design the fact table and load it with data.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam 70-461: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-461.aspx

Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft SQL Server 2012 070-461 practice test free of charge (30Q&As)

QUESTION 1
A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh231256.aspx Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh213125.aspx

QUESTION 2
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has two tables named SavingAccounts and LoanAccounts. Both tables have a column named
AccountNumber of the nvarchar data type.
You use a third table named Transactions that has columns named TransactionId AccountNumber, Amount, and TransactionDate.
You need to ensure that when multiple records are inserted in the Transactions table, only the records that have a valid AccountNumber in the SavingAccounts or
LoanAccounts are inserted.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Transactions
SELECT TransactionID,AccountNumber,Amount,TransactionDate FROM inserted WHERE AccountNumber IN
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts) END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Transactions
SELECT TransactionID,AccountNumber,Amount,TransactionDate FROM inserted WHERE AccountNumber IN
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts) END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
IF EXISTS (
SELECT AccountNumber FROM inserted EXCEPT
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts)) BEGIN
ROLLBACK TRAN
END
END
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
IF EXISTS (
SELECT AccountNumber FROM inserted EXCEPT
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts)) BEGIN
ROLLBACK TRAN
END
END
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any
of the tables in the Sales schema. You need to manage users who are prevented from deleting records in the Sales schema.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the users to the db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
You have a vendor application that uses a scalar function.
You discover that the queries for the application run slower than expected.
You need to gather the runtime information of the scalar function.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Enable the Include Actual Execution Plan option.
B. Enable the Display Estimated Execution Planoption.
C. Create and then enable a profiler trace.
D. Create and then enable an extended events trace.
E. Run the Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: An execution plan is the result of the query optimizer’s attempt to calculate the mostefficient way to implement the request represented by the T-SQL query you
submitted. To generate the first execution plan, you can enable the Include Actual Execution Plan option.
D: SQL Server Extended Events can be used to capture User Defined Function(UDF) counts
References:https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/4100/how-to-find-udfs-causing-sql- server- performance-issues/

QUESTION 5
Your application contains a stored procedure for each country. Each stored procedure accepts an employee identification number through the @EmpID
parameter.
You need to build a single process for each employee that will execute the appropriate stored procedure based on the country of residence.
Which approach should you use?
A. A SELECT statement that includes CASE
B. Cursor
C. BULK INSERT
D. View
E. A user-defined function
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SQL Server user-defined functions are routines that accept parameters, perform an action, such as a complex calculation, and return the result of that action as a
value. The return value can either be a single scalar value or a result set.

QUESTION 6
You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You want to create a table to store Microsoft Word documents.
You need to ensure that the documents must only be accessible via Transact-SQL queries.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) NULL
)
GO
B. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] hierarchyid,
[Document] NVARCHAR NOT NULL
)
GO
C. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore AS FileTable
D. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] [uniqueidentifier] ROWGUIDCOL NOT NULL UNIQUE, [Document] VARBINARY(MAX) FILESTREAM NULL
)
GO
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg471497.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff929144.aspx

QUESTION 7
You create a table that has the StudentCode, SubjectCode, and Marks columns to record mid-year marks for students. The table has marks obtained by 50
students for various subjects.
You need to ensure that the following requirements are met:
Students must be ranked based on their average marks. If one or more students have the same average, the same rank must be given to these students.
Consecutive ranks must be skipped when the same rank is assigned.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT StudentCode as Code, RANK() OVER(ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM StudentMarks GROUP BY StudentCode
B. SELECT Id, Name, Marks, DENSE_RANK() OVER(ORDER BY Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks
C. SELECT StudentCode as Code, DENSE_RANK() OVER(ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM StudentMarks GROUP BY StudentCode
D. SELECT StudentCode as Code,
NTILE(2) OVER(ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM StudentMarks GROUP BY StudentCode
E. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM ( SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks, RANK() OVER(PARTITION BY SubjectCode ORDER BY
Marks ASC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks) tmp
WHERE Rank = 1
F. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM ( SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks, RANK() OVER(PARTITION BY SubjectCode ORDER BY
Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks) tmp
WHERE Rank = 1
G. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM ( SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks, RANK() OVER(PARTITION BY StudentCode ORDER BY
Marks ASC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks) tmp
WHERE Rank = 1
H. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM ( SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks, RANXO OVER(PARTITION BY StudentCode ORDER BY
Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks) tmp
WHERE Rank = 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189798.aspx

QUESTION 8
You develop a stored procedure for a wholesale glass manufacturing company. The stored procedure uses a cursor to read all row-based combinations of the
following tables:
pass4itsure 070-461 question
You observe that the stored procedure returns results very slowly.
You need to improve the execution speed of the stored procedure.
Which cursor type should you use?
A. GLOBAL FORWARD_ONLY
B. LOCAL FAST_FORWARD
C. LOCAL STATIC READ_ONLY FORWARD_ONLY
D. GLOBAL STATIC
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FAST_FORWARD specifies a FORWARD_ONLY, READ_ONLY cursor with performance optimizations enabled.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms180169.aspx

QUESTION 9
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has Trustworthy set to On. You create a stored procedure that returns database-level information from
Dynamic Management Views. You grant User1 access to execute the stored procedure. You need to ensure that the stored procedure returns the required
information when User1 executes the stored procedure. You need to achieve this goal by granting the minimum permissions required. What should you do? (Each
correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.)
A. Create a SQL Server login that has VIEW SERVER STATE permissions. Create an application role and a secured password for the role.
B. Modify the stored procedure to include the EXECUTE AS OWNER statement. Grant VIEW SERVER STATE permissions to the owner of the stored procedure.
C. Create a SQL Server login that has VIEW SERVER STATE permissions. Modify the stored procedure to include the EXECUTE AS {newlogin} statement.
D. Grant the db_owner role on the database to User1.
E. Grant the sysadmin role on the database to User1.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 10
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You need to create and call a stored procedure that meets the following requirements:
Accepts a single input parameter for CustomerID. Returns a single integer to the calling application.
Which Transact-SQL statement or statements should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)A. CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.GetCustomerRating
@CustomerID INT,
@CustomerRating INT OUTPUT
AS
SET NOCOUNT ON
SELECT @CustomerRating = CustomerOrders/CustomerValue FROM Customers WHERE CustomerID = @CustomerID
RETURN
GO
B. EXECUTE dbo.GetCustomerRating 1745
C. DECLARE @CustomerRatingByCustomer INT
DECLARE @Result INT
EXECUTE @Result = dbo.GetCustomerRating
1745,
@CustomerRatingByCustomer
D. CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.GetCustomerRating
@CustomerID INT,
@CustomerRating INT OUTPUT
AS
SET NOCOUNT ON
SELECT @Result = CustomerOrders/CustomerValue
FROM Customers
WHERE CustomerID = @CustomerID
RETURN @Result
GO
E. DECLARE @CustomerRatingByCustomer INT
EXECUTE dbo.GetCustomerRating
@CustomerID = 1745,
@CustomerRating = @CustomerRatingByCustomer OUTPUT
F. CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.GetCustomerRating
@CustomerID INT
AS
DECLARE @Result INT
SET NOCOUNT ON
SELECT @Result = CustomerOrders/CustomerValue
FROM Customers
WHERE CustomerID = @CustomerID
RETURNS @Result
GO
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 11
You are developing a database that will contain price information.
You need to store the prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits.
Which data type should you use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Smallmoney
D. Numeric
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Numeric is the only one in the list that can give a fixed precision and scale. Reference: http:// msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms179882.aspx

QUESTION 12
You create a table that has the StudentCode, SubjectCode, and Marks columns to record mid-year marks for students. The table has marks obtained by 50
students for various subjects.
You need to ensure that the top half of the students arranged by their average marks must be given a rank of 1 and the remaining students must be given a rank
of 2. Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT StudentCode as Code,
RANK() OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM StudentMarks GROUP BY StudentCode
B. SELECT Id, Name, Marks,
DENSE_RANK() OVER (ORDER BY Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks
C. SELECT StudentCode as Code,
DENSE_RANK() OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM StudentMarks GROUP BY StudentCode
D. SELECT StudentCode as Code,
NTILE (2) OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value
FROM StudentMarks
GROUP BY StudentCode
E. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM ( SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks, RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY SubjectCode ORDER BY
Marks ASC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks) tmp
WHERE Rank = 1
F. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM ( SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks, RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY SubjectCode ORDER BY
Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks) tmp
WHERE Rank = 1
G. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM ( SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks, RANK () OVER (PARTITION BY StudentCode ORDER BY
Marks ASC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks) tmp
WHERE Rank = 1
H. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM ( SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks, RANXO OVER (PARTITION BY StudentCode ORDER BY
Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks) tmp
WHERE Rank = 1Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 13
You create a view based on the following statement:
pass4itsure 070-461 question
You grant the Select permission to User1.
You need to change the view so that it displays only the records that were processed in the month prior to the current month. You need to ensure that after the
changes, the view functions correctly for User1.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
pass4itsure 070-461 question
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 14
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 to develop a database application.
You need to create an object that meets the following requirements:
Takes an input parameter
Returns a table of values
Can be referenced within a view
Which object should you use?
A. inline table-valued function
B. user-defined data type
C. stored procedure
D. scalar-valued function
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
You are developing a database application by using Microsoft SQL Server 2012.
You have a query that runs slower than expected.
You need to capture execution plans that will include detailed information on missing indexes recommended by the query optimizer.
What should you do?
A. Add a HASH hint to the query.
B. Add a LOOP hint to the query.
C. Add a FORCESEEK hint to the query.
D. Add an INCLUDE clause to the index.
E. Add a FORCESCAN hint to the Attach query.
F. Add a columnstore index to cover the query.
G. Enable the optimize for ad hoc workloads option.
H. Cover the unique clustered index with a columnstore index.
I. Include a SET FORCEPLAN ON statement before you run the query.
J. Include a SET STATISTICS PROFILE ON statement before you run the query.
K. Include a SET STATISTICS SHOWPLAN_XML ON statement before you run the query.
L. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL REPEATABLE READ statement before you run the query.
M. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT statement before you run the query.
N. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statement before you run the query.
Correct Answer: K
Explanation

QUESTION 16
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Customers and Orders.
The tables are related by a column named CustomerId.
You need to create a query that meets the following requirements:
Returns the CustomerName for all customers and the OrderDate for any orders that they have placed. Results must not include customers who have not placed
any orders.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerId
B. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
RIGHT OUTER JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerId
C. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
CROSS JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerId = Orders.CustomerId
D. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerId = Orders.CustomerId
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms177634.aspx

QUESTION 17
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
pass4itsure 070-461 question
You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format.
pass4itsure 070-461 question
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE
Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE
Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE
Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE
Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE
Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE
Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders
INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders
INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: F
Explanation

QUESTION 18
You are designing a table for a SQL Server database. The table uses horizontal partitioning.
You have the following requirements:
pass4itsure 070-461 question
You need to choose the appropriate data type for the key value.
What should you do?
A. Use the NEWID function to create a unique identifier.
B. Use the NEWSEQUENTIALID function to create a unique identifier.
C. Generate a random value that uses the bigint datatype.
D. Generate a random value that uses the char(16) data type.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Horizontal partitioning divides a table into multiple tables. Each table then contains the same number of columns, but fewer rows. For example, a table that
contains 1 billion rows could be partitioned horizontally into 12 tables, with each smaller table representing one month of data for a specific year. Any queries
requiring data for a specific month only reference the appropriate table.
NEWSEQUENTIALID creates a GUID that is greater than any GUID previously generated by this function on a specified computer since Windows was started.
After restarting Windows, the GUID can start again from a lower range, but is still globally unique. When a GUID column is used as a row identifier, using
NEWSEQUENTIALID can be faster than using the NEWID function. This is because the NEWID function causes random activity and uses fewer cached data
pages. Using NEWSEQUENTIALID also helps to completely fill the data and index pages.
References:https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189786.aspx

QUESTION 19
You are developing a database that will contain price information.
You need to store the prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits.
Which data type should you use?
A. Real
B. Small money
C. Money
D. Decimal
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 20
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition.
pass4itsure 070-461 question
You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view.
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause.
D. Create a clustered index on the view.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188783.aspx

QUESTION 21
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a stored procedure. You need to supply the
stored procedure with multiple event names and their dates as parameters. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Your database contains a table named Customer that has columns named CustomerID and Name.
You want to write a query that retrieves data from the Customer table sorted by Name listing 20 rows at a time.
You need to view rows 41 through 60.
Which Transact-SQL query should you create?
pass4itsure 070-461 question
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 23
You are developing a database application by using Microsoft SQL Server 2012.
An application that uses a database begins to run slowly.
You discover that a large amount of memory is consumed by single-use dynamic queries.
You need to reduce procedure cache usage from these statements without creating any additional indexes.What should you do?
A. Add a HASH hint to the query.
B. Add a LOOP hint to the query.
C. Add a FORCESEEK hint to the query.
D. Add an INCLUDE clause to the index.
E. Add a FORCESCAN hint to the Attach query.
F. Add a columnstore index to cover the query.
G. Enable the optimize for ad hoc workloads option.
H. Cover the unique clustered index with a columnstore index.
I. Include a SET FORCEPLAN ON statement before you run the query.
J. Include a SET STATISTICS PROFILE ON statement before you run the query.
K. Include a SET STATISTICS SHOWPLAN_XML ON statement before you run the query.
L. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL REPEATABLE READ statement before you run the query.
M. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT statement before you run the query.
N. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statement before you run the query.
Correct Answer: G
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc645587.aspx

QUESTION 24
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a banking transaction management application.
You need to retrieve a list of account holders who live in cities that do not have a branch location.
Which Transact-SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID NOT IN (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
B. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ALL (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
C. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> SOME (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
D. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ANY (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Verified the answers as correct.
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188047.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms177682.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms173545.aspx

QUESTION 25
You are writing a set of queries against a FILESTREAM-enabled database.
You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a runtime error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored procedure?
A. SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE
B. SET XACT_ABORT OFF
C. SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT
D. SET IMPLICIT_TRANSACTIONS ON
E. SET XACT_ABORT ON
F. SET IMPLICIT TRANSACTIONS OFF
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188792.aspx

QUESTION 26
You need to build a table structure for a stored procedure to support data entry from a website form. The website form must meet the following requirements:
pass4itsure 070-461 question
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Add the CHECK constraint to the table structure.B. Add the DATEPART function to the stored procedure.
C. Add the DEFAULT constraint to the table structure.
D. Add the SYSDATETIMEOFFSET function to the stored procedure.
E. Add the ISDATE function to the stored procedure.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SYSDATETIMEOFFSET returns a datetimeoffset(7) value that contains the date and time of the computer on which the instance of SQL Server is running.
ISDATE returns 1 if the expression is a valid date, time, or datetime value; otherwise, 0.
References:https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb677334.aspx

QUESTION 27
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a shopping application.
You need to retrieve a list of customers who live in territories that do not have a sales person.
Which Transact- SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> SOME(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
B. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ALL(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
C. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ANY(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
D. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID NOT IN(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 28
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products. The Products table has the following definition:
pass4itsure 070-461 question
You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice column is updated.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS IF COLUMNS_UPDATED (RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb510663.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms186329.aspx

QUESTION 29
You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT
Correct Answer: BExplanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb510663.aspx Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms174361.aspx
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187926.aspx
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190357.aspx
Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188061.aspx

QUESTION 30
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 to develop a database application.
You need to implement a computed column that references a lookup table by using an INNER JOIN against another table.
What should you do?
A. Reference a user-defined function within the computed column.
B. Create a BEFORE trigger that maintains the state of the computed column.
C. Add a default constraint to the computed column that implements hard-coded values.
D. Add a default constraint to the computed column that implements hard-coded CASE statements.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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Exam 70-413: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-413.aspx

Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft Server Infrastructure 070-413 practice test free of charge (40Q&As)

QUESTION 1
A company has a line-of-business application named Appl that runs on an internal IIS server. Appl uses a SQL Server 2008 database that is hosted on the same server. You move the database to a dedicated SQL Server named SQL1. Users
report that they can no longer access the application by using their domain credentials. You need to ensure that users can access Appl.
Solution: You configure App1 and SQL1 to use NTLM authentication. Then you restart the IIS and SQL Server services.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: We would need to map the Windows Identity to a SQL Server database as well.
Note: NTLM authentication is also known as integrated Windows authentication. If your application runs on a Windows-based intranet, you might be able to use Windows integrated authentication for database access. Integrated security uses
the current Windows identity established on the operating system thread to access the SQL Server database. You can then map the Windows identity to a SQL Server database and permissions.
Reference: How to: Access SQL Server Using Windows Integrated Security
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bsz5788z(v=vs.100).aspx

QUESTION 2
You manage a server infrastructure for a software development company. There are 30 physical servers distributed across 4 subnets, and one Microsoft Hyper-V cluster that can run up to 100 virtual machines (VMs). You configure the
servers to receive the IP address from a DHCP server named SERVER1 that runs Microsoft Windows Server 2012 R2. You assign a 30-day duration to all DHCP leases.
Developers create VMs in the environment to test new software. They may create VMs several times each week.
Developers report that some new VMs cannot acquire IP address. You observe that the DHCP scope is full and delete non-existent devices manually. All physical servers must keep their current DHCP lease configuration.
You need to ensure that the DHCP lease duration for VMs is 8 hours.
What should you configure?
A. 4 server-level Allow filters
B. 1 server-level DHCP policy
C. 1 scope-level DHCP policy
D. 4 scope-level exclusion ranges
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: We should use a server level DHCP policy as they apply to all DHCP clients.
Note: Polices can apply at the server level or the scope level. Server level policies are processed for all DHCP client requests received by the server. Scope level policies are processed only for DHCP client requests that apply to a specific
scope.
Reference: Introduction to DHCP Policies
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn425039.aspx

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers that run either Windows Server 2008 R2 or Windows Server 2012.
All client computers on the internal network are joined to the domain. Some users establish VPN connections to the network by using Windows computers that do not belong to the domain.
All client computers receive IP addresses by using DHCP.
You need to recommend a Network Access Protection (NAP) enforcement method to meet the following requirements:
Verify whether the client computers have up-to-date antivirus software. Provides a warning to users who have virus definitions that are out-of-date. Ensure that client computers that have out-of-date virus definitions can connect to the
network.
Which NAP enforcement method should you recommend?
A. DHCP
B. IPSec
C. VPN
D. 802.1x
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
NAP enforcement for DHCP
DHCP enforcement is deployed with a DHCP Network Access Protection (NAP) enforcement server component, a DHCP enforcement client component, and Network Policy Server (NPS).
Using DHCP enforcement, DHCP servers and NPS can enforce health policy when a computer attempts to lease or renew an IP version 4 (IPv4) address. However, if client computers are configured with a static IP address or are otherwise
configured to circumvent the use of DHCP, this enforcement method is not effective.
Note: The NAP health policy server can use a health requirement server to validate the health state of the NAP client or to determine the current version of software or updates that need to be installed on the NAP client.
Reference: NAP Enforcement for DHCP
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc733020(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain.
You plan to implement a remote access solution that will contain three servers that run Windows Server 2012. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
Server1 will support up to 200 concurrent VPN connections.
You need to ensure that all VPN connection requests are authenticated and authorized by either Server2 or Server3. The solution must ensure that the VPN connections can be authenticated if either Server2 or Server3 fails.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, configure a RADIUS proxy. On Server2 and Server3, add a RADIUS client.
B. On Server2 and Server3, add a RADIUS client. On Server1, modify the Authentication settings.
C. On Server1, configure a RADIUS proxy. Add Server2 and Server3 to a failover cluster.
D. Add Server2 and Server3 to a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. On Server1, modify the Authentication settings.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* A network access server (NAS) is a device that provides some level of access to a larger network. A NAS using a RADIUS infrastructure is also a RADIUS client, sending connection requests and accounting messages to a RADIUS server
for authentication, authorization, and accounting.
* Client computers, such as wireless portable computers and other computers running client operating systems, are not RADIUS clients. RADIUS clients are network access servers–such as wireless access points, 802.1X-capable switches,
virtual private network (VPN) servers, and dial-up servers–because they use the RADIUS protocol to communicate with RADIUS servers such as Network Policy Server (NPS) servers.
Reference: RADIUS Client
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754033.aspx

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains the organization units (OUs) configured as shown in the following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
Users and computers at the company change often.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO6. GPO6 contains user settings.
You need to ensure that GPO6 applies to users when they log on to the kiosk computers only. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Link GPO6 to OU4 and configure loopback processing in GPO6.
B. Link GPO6 to OU1 and configure WMI filtering on GPO3.
C. Link GPO6 to OU1 and configure loopback processing in GPO6.
D. Link GPO6 to OU1 and configure loopback processing in GPO5.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Group Policy applies to the user or computer in a manner that depends on where both the user and the computer objects are located in Active Directory. However, in some cases, users may need policy applied to them based on
the location of the computer object alone. You can use the Group Policy loopback feature to apply Group Policy Objects (GPOs) that depend only on which computer the user logs on to.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains a single domain. The forest has five Active Directory sites. Each site is associated to two subnets.
You add a site named Site6 that contains two domain controllers. Site6 is associated to one subnet.
You need to verify whether replication to the domain controllers in Site6 completes successfully.
Which two possible commands can you use to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Get-ADReplicationSubnet
B. Get-ADReplicationUpToDatenessVectorTable
C. repadmin /showattr
D. Get-ADReplicationSite1ink
E. repadmin /showrepl
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: B: The Get-ADReplicationUpToDatenessVectorTable cmdlet displays the highest Update Sequence Number (USN) for the specified domain controller(s). This information shows how up-to-date a replica is with its replication
partners. During replication, each object that is replicated has USN and if the object is modified, the USN is incremented. The value of the USN for a given object is local to each domain controller where it has replicated are number is different
on each domain controller.
E: The repadmin /showrepl command helps you understand the replication topology and replication failures. It reports status for each source domain controller from which the destination has an inbound connection object. The status report is
categorized by directory partition.

QUESTION 7
You have a Windows Server 2012 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. The cluster has Dynamic Optimization enabled. You deploy three highly available virtual machines to the cluster by using System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine
Manager (VMM).
You need to prevent Dynamic Optimization from placing any of the three virtual machines in the same node.
What should you do?
A. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Compatibility settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines.
B. Set the Priority property of the virtual machine cluster role.
C. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Servicing Windows settings of the virtual machines.
D. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Availability settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Your network contains on Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
An administrator plans to delegate control of custom tasks on several organizational units (OUs).
You need to ensure that the custom tasks appear in the list of tasks that can be delegated from the Delegation of Control Wizard.
What should you do?
A. Configures custom MMC console.
B. Add a new class to the Active Directory schema.
C. Configure a new authorization store by using Authorization Manager.
D. Modify the Delegwiz.inf file.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three Active Directory sites. The Active Directory sites are configured as shown in the following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
Site link name Connected sites
You need to design the Active Directory site topology to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that all replication traffic between Site2 and Site3 replicates through Site1 if a domain controller in Site1 is available.
Ensure that the domain controllers between Site2 and Site3 can replicate if all of the domain controllers in Site1 are unavailable.
What should you do?
A. Delete Link1.
B. Delete Link2.C. Delete Link3.
D. Disable site link bridging.
E. Create one site link bridge.
F. Modify the cost of Link2.
G. Create one SMTP site link between Site2 and Site3.
H. Create one SMTP site link between Site1 and Site3. Create one SMTP site link between Site1 and Site2.
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The cost setting on a site link object determines the likelihood that replication occurs over a particular route between two site. Replication routes with the lowest cumulative cost are preferred.
Incorrect:
Not B: If we delete Link2 we would not be able to use this redundant link if another link goes down.
Reference: Configure the Site Link Cost to Establish a Priority for Replication Routing
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc794882(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 10
Your company has a main office and a branch office.
The main office and Two The branch office
main office contains 25000 users.
The branch office contains 1800 users in each
Each office contains two IP subnets.
The company plans to deploy an Active Directory forest.
You need to recommend an Active Directory infrastructure to meet the following requirements:
(Remeber these two requirement need help wat & how mny domain site they need)
– Ensure that the users are authenticated by using a domain controller in their respective office.
– Minimize the amount of Active Directory replication traffic between the offices.
Select the BEST answer.
A. Three domains and one site
B. Two domains and one sites
C. One domain and three sites
D. Three domain and Three sites
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three VLANs. The VLANs are configured as shown in the following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
All client computers run either Windows 7 or Windows 8.
Goal: You need to implement a solution to ensure that only the client computers that have all of the required security updates installed can connect to VLAN 1. The solution must ensure that all other client computers connect to VLAN 3.
Solution: You implement the 802.1x Network Access Protection (NAP) enforcement method.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: NAP supports a variety of what we call enforcement methods. In the NAP space, and enforcement method is simply a term that defines the way a machine connects to a network. In NAP, these are DHCP, 802.1x (wired or
wireless), VPN, IPsec, or via a Terminal Services Gateway.

QUESTION 12
A company has a single-forest and single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named Fabrikam.com that runs Windows 2012 Server. The AD DS forest functional level and the domain functional level are both set to Windows
2008 R2. You use IP Address Management (IPAM) as the IP management solution. You have two DHCP Servers named DHCP1 and DHCP2, and one IPAM server named IPAM1.
The company plans to acquire a company named Contoso, Ltd., which has a single-forest and single-domain AD DS named contoso.com. The forest functional level and domain functional level of Contoso.com is set to Windows 2008. All
servers at Contoso run Windows Server 2008. The IP management solution at Contoso is based on a single DHCP server named SERVER3.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
The total number of users in both companies will be 5000.
You have the following requirements:
The solution must be able to allocate up to three IP addresses per user. All IP address leases must be renewed every two days.
You need to ensure that the corresponding servers will have enough capacity to store six years of IP utilization data and eight months of event catalog data.
What should you recommend?
A. Add at least 20 GB of storage to the IPAM server.
B. Migrate Contoso.com to Fabrikam.com.
C. Establish a forest trust between Contoso.com and Fabrikam.com.
D. Upgrade SERVER3 to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: You can use IPAM to manage DHCP servers running on Windows Server 2008 R2 and above. Here Server3 is running Windows 2008 however, so it needs to be upgraded.
Reference: IPAM managed DHCP server requirements
http://windowsitpro.com/windows-server-2003-end-support/ipam-managed-dhcp-server- requirements

QUESTION 13
This question consists of two statements: One is named Assertion and the other Is named Reason. Both of these statements may be true; both may be false; or one may be true, while the other may be false.
To answer this question, you must first evaluate whether each statement is true on its own. If both statements are true, then you must evaluate whether the Reason (the second statement) correctly explains the Assertion (the first statement).
You will then select the answer from the list of answer choices that matches your evaluation of the two statements.
Assertion:
DHCP failover clustering provides load balancing when you use multiple DHCP servers to distribute IP addresses to the network clients. Clients can renew their IP leases even if some of the DCHP servers become unavailable. DHCP failover
clustering supports stateless and stateful IPv4 and IPv6 IP addresses, as well as DHCP policies and filtering.
Reason:The cluster health monitoring mechanism ensures the fault tolerance of the DHCP service and all configured DHCP settings. It also protects the DHCP database from failures and corruptions.
Evaluate the Assertion and Reason statements and choose the correct answer option.
A. Both the Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion
B. Both the Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.
C. The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
D. The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.
E. Both the Assertion and the Reason are false.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: * The assertion is false.
DHCP failover cluster does not provide load balancing. It places the DHCP server in a cluster with an additional server configured with the DHCP service that assumes the load if the primary DHCP server fails.
* The reason is false.
The cluster health monitoring mechanism is known as the cluster heartbeat. The heartbeat detects if a cluster node is down, but it does not help in protecting the DHCP databas.

QUESTION 14
You have a Hyper-V host named Hyper1 that has Windows Server 2012 installed. Hyper1 hosts 20 virtual machines.
Hyper1 has one physical network adapter.
You need to implement a networking solution that evenly distributes the available bandwidth on Hyper1 to all of the virtual machines.
What should you modify?
A. The settings of the virtual switch
B. The settings of the virtual network adapter
C. The Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler settings of the physical network adapter
D. The settings of the legacy network adapter
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains the servers shown in the following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
You need to recommend which servers will benefit most from implementing data deduplication.
Which servers should you recommend?
A. Server1 and Server2
B. Server1 and Server3
C. Server1 and Server4
D. Server2 and Server3
E. Server2 and Server4
F. Server3 and Server4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: * Server 2: Data deduplication involves finding and removing duplication within data without compromising its fidelity or integrity. The goal is to store more data in less space by segmenting files into small variable-sized chunks
(32?28 KB), identifying duplicate chunks, and maintaining a single copy of each chunk. Redundant copies of the chunk are replaced by a reference to the single copy. The chunks are compressed and then organized into special container
files in the System Volume Information folder
* Server 3: In Windows Server 2012 R2, Data Deduplication can be installed on a scale-out file server and used to optimize live VHDs for VDI workloads.
Reference: What’s New in Data Deduplication in Windows Server

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest is managed by using Microsoft System Center 2012.
You plan to create virtual machine templates to deploy servers by using the Virtual Machine
Manager Self-service Portal (VMMSSP).
To the Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) library, you add a VHD that has a generalized image of Windows Server 2012.
You need to identify which VMM components must be associated with the image.
Which components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose all that apply.)
A. A guest OS profile
B. A hardware profile
C. A capability profile
D. A host profile
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Profiles
VMM provides the following profiles:
* (A) Guest operating system profile–A guest operating system profile defines operating system configured settings which will be applied to a virtual machine created from the template. It defines common operating system settings such as the
type of operating system, the computer name, administrator password, domain name, product key, and time zone, answer file and run once file.
* (B) Hardware profile–A hardware profile defines hardware configuration settings such as CPU, memory, network adapters, a video adapter, a DVD drive, a floppy drive, COM ports, and the priority given the virtual machine when allocating
resources on a virtual machine host.
Incorrect:
Not D: VMM also includes host profiles. Host profiles are not used for virtual machine creation.
They are used during the conversion of a bare-metal computer to a Hyper-V host.
Reference: Creating Profiles and Templates in VMM Overview
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj860424.aspx

QUESTION 17
Your network contains an internal network and a perimeter network. The internal network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 organization. All of the domain
controllers in contoso.com run Windows Server 2012.
The perimeter network contains an Active Directory forest named litware.com.
You deploy Microsoft Forefront Unified Access Gateway (UAG) to litware.com. All of the domain controllers in litware.com run Windows Server 2012.
Some users connect from outside the network to use Outlook Web App.
You need to ensure that external users can authenticate by using client certificates.
What should you do?
More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. To the perimeter network, add an Exchange server that has the Client Access server role installed.B. Deploy UAG to contoso.com.
C. Enable Kerberos delegation in litware.com.
D. Enable Kerberos constrained delegation in litware.com.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Forefront TMG provides support for Kerberos constrained delegation (often abbreviated as KCD) to enable published Web servers to authenticate users by Kerberos afterForefront TMG verifies their identity by using a non-
Kerberos authentication method. When used in this way, Kerberos constrained delegation eliminates the need for requiring users to provide credentials twice.
Reference: About Kerberos constrained delegation
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc995228.aspx

QUESTION 18
You plan to deploy serverl.child.contoso.com as a read-only domain controller (RODC).
You run the adprep.exe /rodcprep command on DC3 and receive the following error message:
pass4itsure 070-413 question
You need to identify what prevents you from successfully running Adprep /rodcprep on DC3.
What should you identify?
A. The domain functional level of child.contoso.com isset to the wrong level.
B. DC3 cannot connect to the domain naming master on DC1.
C. The forest functional level is set to the wrong level.
D. DC3 cannot connect to the infrastructure master onDC2.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Adprep could not contact a replica… This problem occurs when the Adprep /rodcprep command tries to contact the infrastructure master for each application partition in the forest. Reference: Error message when you run the
“Adprep /rodcprep” command in Windows Server 2008: “Adprep could not contact a replica for partition DC=DomainDnsZones,DC=Contoso,DC=com”
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/kb/949257

QUESTION 19
You are designing an Active Directory forest for a company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso identifies the following administration requirements for the design:
User account administration and Group Policy administration will be performed by network technicians. The technicians will be added to a group named OUAdmins. IT staff who are responsible for backing up servers will have user accounts
that are members of the Backup Operators group in the domain. All user accounts will be located in an organizational unit (OU) named AllEmployees.
You run the Delegation of Control Wizard and assign the OUAdmins group full control to all of the objects in the AllEmployeesOU.
After delegating the required permissions, you discover that the user accounts of some of the IT staff have inconsistent permissions on the objects in AllEmployees.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the members of OUAdmins can manage all of the objects in AllEmployees.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Remove the IT staff user accounts from Backup Operators and place them in a new group. Grant the new group the Backup files and directories user right and the Restore files and directories user right. Enforce permission inheritance on
all of the objects in the AllEmployeesOU.
B. Create separate administrator user accounts for the technicians. Enforce permission inheritance on all of the objects in the AllEmployeesOU. Delegate permissions to the new user accounts.
C. Enforce permission inheritance on all of the objects in the AllEmployeesOU. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Move the user accounts of the technicians to a separate OU. Enforce permission inheritance on all of the objects in the AllEmployeesOU. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on the AllEmployeesOU.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed and are part of a host group named Group1 in Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual
Machine Manager (VMM).
Server1 and Server2 have identical hardware, software, and settings.
You configure VMM to migrate virtual machines if the CPU utilization on a host exceeds 65 percent. The current load on the servers is shown following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
You start a new virtual machine on Server2 named VM8. VM8 has a CPU utilization of 20 percent.
You discover that none of the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1.
You need to ensure that the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1.
What should you modify from the Dynamic Optimization configuration?
A. The Host Reserve threshold
B. The Power Optimization threshold
C. The Aggressiveness level
D. The Dynamic Optimization threshold
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
Your company has a main office and a branch office.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
The domain contains two global groups. The groups are configured as shown in the following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
You need to ensure that the RODC is configured to meet the following requirements:
Cache passwords for all of the members of Branch1Users. Prevent the caching of passwords for the members of Helpdesk.
What should you do?
A. Modify the membership of the Denied RODC Password Replication group.
B. Install the BranchCache feature on RODC1.
C. Modify the delegation settings of RODC1.
D. Create a Password Settings object (PSO) for the Helpdesk group.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Password Replication Policy Allowed and Denied lists Two new built-in groups are introduced in Windows Server 2008 Active Directory domains to support RODC operations. These are the Allowed RODC Password Replication
Group and Denied RODC Password Replication Group.
These groups help implement a default Allowed List and Denied List for the RODC Password Replication Policy. By default, the two groups are respectively added to the msDS-RevealOnDemandGroup and msDS-NeverRevealGroup Active
Directory attributes.
Reference: Password Replication Policy
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc730883(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 22
Your company plans to hire 100 sales representatives who will work remotely.
Each sales representative will be given a laptop that will run Windows 7. A corporate image of Windows 7 will be applied to each laptop.
While the laptops are connected to the corporate network, they will be joined to the domain. The sales representatives will not be local administrators.
Once the laptops are configured, each laptop will be shipped by courier to a sales representative.
The sales representative will use a VPN connection to connect to the corporate network.
You need to recommend a solution to deploy the VPN settings for the sales representatives. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the VPN settings are the same for every sales representative. Ensure that when a user connects to the VPN, an application named App1 starts.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. VPN auto triggering
B. The Add-VpnConnection cmdlet
C. The Connection Manager Administration Kit (CMAK)
D. Group Policy preferences
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: We can use CMAK to create a connection that starts the Application App1 when the connectioin is established. The latter is achieved through the configuring CMAK “Post-Connect” custom action.
Note : Connection Manager is a client network connection tool that allows a user to connect to a remote network, such as an Internet service provider (ISP), or a corporate network protected by a virtual private network (VPN) server. The
Connection Manager Administration Kit (CMAK) is a tool that you can use to customize the remote connection experience for users on your network by creating predefined connections to remote servers and networks. To create and
customize a connection for your users, you use the CMAK wizard.
Incorrect:
Not B: The Add-VpnConnection cmdlet would be able to establish a connection, but it could not start the App1 application.
Reference: Connection Manager Administration Kit
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc752995.aspx

QUESTION 23
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure.
You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months.
Solution: You create a copy of the Basic EFS certificate template, and then you modify the validity period of the copy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 file servers. The file servers connect to a Fibre Channel SAN. You plan to implement 20 Hyper-V hosts in a failover cluster.
The Hyper-V hosts will not have host bus adapters (HBAs).
You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation that meets the following requirements:
The virtual machines must support live migration.
The virtual hard disks (VHDs) must be stored on the file servers.
Which two technologies achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Cluster Shared Volume (CSV)
B. An NFS share
C. Storage pools
D. SMB 3.0 shares
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two Active Directory domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2003. The functional level of both domains is
Windows Server 2008.
The forest contains three domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table
pass4itsure 070-413 question
DC1 and DC2 have the DNS Server server role installed and are authoritative for both contoso.com and child.contoso.com.
The child.contoso.com domain contains a server named serverl.child.contoso.com that runs Windows Server 2012.
You plan to deploy server1.child.contoso.com as a read-only domain controller (RODC).You run the adprep.exe /rodcprep command on DC3 and receive the following error message:
pass4itsure 070-413 question
You need to identify what prevents you from successfully running Adprep /rodcprep on DC3.
What should you identify?
A. The domain functional level of child.contoso.com is set to the wrong level.
B. DC3 cannot connect to the infrastructure master on DC2.
C. DC3 cannot connect to the domain naming master on DC1.
D. The forest functional level is set to the wrong level.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Adprep could not contact a replica… This problem occurs when the Adprep /rodcprep command tries to contact the infrastructure master for each application partition in the forest.
Reference: Error message when you run the “Adprep /rodcprep” command in Windows Server 2008: “Adprep could not contact a replica for partition DC=DomainDnsZones,DC=Contoso,DC=com”
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/kb/949257

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three VLANs. The VLANs are configured as shown in the following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
All client computers run either Windows 7 or Windows 8.
The corporate security policy states that all of the client computers must have the latest security updates installed.
You need to implement a solution to ensure that only the client computers that have all of the required security updates installed can connect to VLAN 1. The solution must ensure that all other client computers connect to VLAN 3.
Solution: You implement the DHCP Network Access Protection (NAP) enforcement method.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Implementing DHCP NAP to Enforce WSUS Updates

QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 infrastructure.
You deploy a second System Center 2012 infrastructure in a test environment. You create a service template named Template1 in both System Center 2012 infrastructures.
For self-service users, you create a service offering for Template1. The users create 20 instances of Template1.
You modify Template1 in the test environment. You export the service template to a file named Template1.xml.
You need to ensure that the changes to Template1 can be applied to the existing instances in the production environment.
What should you do when you import the template?
A. Overwrite the current service template.
B. Change the name of the service template.
C. Create a new service template.
D. Change the release number of the service template.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 infrastructure.
You deploy a service named Service1 by using a service template. Service1 contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1.
Solution: From Operations Manager, you create a Distributed Application and a Service Level Tracking object.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 29
A company has offices in multiple geographic locations, The sites have high-latency, low- bandwidth connecbons, You need to implement a multiple Windows Deployment Server (WDS) topology for deploying standard client device images to
all sites.
Solution: You install four WDS servers and configure them as load-balanced cluster
Does this meet you goal?
A. YesB. No
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 30
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple sites.
You plan to deploy DirectAccess.
The network security policy states that when client computers connect to the corporate network from the Internet, all of the traffic destined for the Internet must be routed through the corporate network.
You need to recommend a solution for the planned DirectAccess deployment that meets the security policy requirement.
Solution: You enable force tunneling.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: DirectAccess allows connectivity to organizational network resources without the need for traditional virtual private network (VPN) connections.
DirectAccess allows remote users to securely access internal network file shares, Web sites, and applications without connecting to a virtual private network (VPN). An internal network is also known as a private network or intranet.
DirectAccess establishes bi- directional connectivity with an internal network every time a DirectAccess-enabled computer connects to the Internet, even before the user logs on. Users never have to think about connecting to the internal
network and IT administrators can manage remote computers outside the office, even when the computers are not connected to the VPN.
Reference: DirectAccess Overview
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd759144.aspx

QUESTION 31
Your company, which is named Contoso, Ltd., has a main office and two branch offices. The main office is located in North America. The branch offices are located in Asia and Europe.
You plan to design an Active Directory forest and domain infrastructure.
You need to recommend an Active Directory design to meet the following requirements:
* The contact information of all the users in the Europe office must not be visible to the users in the other offices.
* The administrators in each office must be able to control the user settings and the computer settings of the users in their respective office.
The solution must use the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. One forest that contains three domains
B. Three forests that each contain one domain
C. Two forests that each contain one domain
D. One forest that contains one domain
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The most basic of all Active Directory structures is the single domain model; this type of domain structure comes with one major advantage over the other models:
simplicity. A single security boundary defines the borders of the domain, and all objects are located within that boundary. The establishment of trust relationships between other domains is not necessary, and implementation of technologies
such as Group Policies is made easier by the simple structure.

QUESTION 32
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that has two domains named contoso.com and europe.contoso.com. The forest contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
You plan to manage the DHCP settings and the DNS settings centrally by using IP Address Management (IPAM).
You need to ensure that you can use IPAM to manage the DHCP and DNS settings in both domains. The solution must use the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade DCE1 and DCE2 to Windows Server 2012, and then install the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature. Run the Set-IpamConfiguration cmdlet for each domain.
B. Upgrade DCE1 and DCE2 to Windows Server 2012, and then install the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature. Run the Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioning cmdlet for each domain.
C. Upgrade DC1 and DC2 to Windows Server 2012, and then install the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature. Run the Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioning cmdlet for each domain.
D. Upgrade DC1 and DC2 to Windows Server 2012, and then install the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature. Run the Set-IpamConfiguration cmdlet for each domain.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: * You can use IPAM to manage DHCP servers running on Windows Server 2008 R2 and above. Here DCE1 and DCE2 are running Windows 2003, so they need to be upgraded to Windows Server 2008 R2 or above.
* Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioning
Creates and links group policies in the specified domain for provisioning required access settings on the servers managed by the computer running the IP Address Management (IPAM) server.
Incorrect:
Not C: DC1 and DC2 do not need to be upgraded as IPAM can manage DHCP servers running on Windows Server 2008 R2 and above.
Not A, Not D: Set-IpamConfiguration
Sets the configuration for the computer running the IP Address Management (IPAM) server, including the TCP port number over which the computer running the IPAM Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT) client connects with the
computer running the IPAM server.
Reference: IPAM managed DHCP server requirements
http://windowsitpro.com/windows-server-2003-end-support/ipam-managed-dhcp-server- requirements
Upgrade the Windows 2003 Servers.

QUESTION 33
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure.
You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months.
Solution: From the properties of the User certificate template, you assign the Allow – Enroll permission to the Authenticated Users group.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 34
Your network contains a Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1.
You install Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
You create a user account for another administrator named User1.
You plan to provide User1 with the ability to manage only the virtual machines that User1 creates.
You need to identify what must be created before you delegate the required permissions.
What should you identify?
A. A service template
B. A Delegated Administrator
C. A cloud
D. A host group
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple sites. You plan to deploy DirectAccess.
The network security policy states that when client computers connect to the corporate network from the Internet, all of the traffic destined for the Internet must be routed through the corporate network.
You need to recommend a solution for the planned DirectAccess deployment that meets the security policy requirement.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Set the ISATAP State to state enabled.
B. Enable split tunneling.
C. Set the ISATAP State to state disabled.
D. Enable force tunneling.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can configure DirectAccess clients to send all of their traffic through the tunnels to theDirectAccess server with force tunneling. When force tunneling is configured, DirectAccess clients that detect that they are on the Internet modify their
IPv4 default route so that default route IPv4 traffic is not sent. With the exception of local subnet traffic, all traffic sent by the DirectAccess client is IPv6 traffic that goes through tunnels to the DirectAccess server.

QUESTION 36
Your company has a main office and four branch offices. The main office is located in London.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Each office contains several servers that run Windows Server 2012.
In each branch office, you plan to deploy an additional 20 servers that will run Windows Server 2012. Some of the servers will have a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012.
You identify the following requirements for the deployment of the new servers:
Operating system images must be administered centrally.
The operating system images must be deployed by using PXE.
The WAN traffic caused by the deployment of each operating system must be minimized.
You need to recommend a solution for the deployment of the new servers.
What should you recommend?
Exhibits
pass4itsure 070-413 question
A. Deploy Windows Deployment Services (WDS) in each office. Replicate the images by using Distributed File System (DFS) Replication,
B. Deploy Windows Deployment Services (WDS) in the main office only. Replicate the images by using Distributed File System (DFS) Replication.
C. Deploy Windows Deployment Services (WDS) in each office. Copy the images by using BranchCache.
D. Deploy Windows Deployment Services (WDS) in the main office only. Copy the images by using BranchCache.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: DFS Replication is a replication engine that you can use to replicate images between Windows Deployment Services servers.
Reference: Storing and Replicating Images Using DFS

QUESTION 37
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The Active Directory site topology is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
pass4itsure 070-413 question
DC1 and DC2 run Windows Server 2003 R2. All FSMO roles are located on DC2.
You plan to deploy a read-only domain controller (RODC) to Site3. You need to recommend changes to the network to support the planned RODC implementation.
What should you recommend?
More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. To Site1, add an RODC that runs Windows Server 2012.
B. Replace DC2 with a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2012.
C. To Site2, add an RODC that runs Windows Server 2012.
D. Replace DC1 with a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Each RODC requires a writable domain controller running Windows Server 2012 for the same domain from which the RODC can directly replicate. Typically, this requires that a writable domain controller running Windows Server
2012 be placed in the nearest site in the topology.
Reference: Active Directory Replication Considerations
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc772065(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 38
Your company has a main office and a branch office.
You plan to implement a failover cluster named Cluster1 to host an application named App1. The data of App1 will replicate to all of the nodes in Cluster1.
Cluster1 will contain two servers. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
pass4itsure 070-413 question
The cluster nodes will not use shared storage.
The branch office contains two file servers named Server3 and Server4.
You need to ensure that App1 fails over automatically to another server if a single node in Cluster1 fails.
What should you do?
More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Add Server3 as a node in Cluster1.
B. Add Server1, Server2, and Server3 to a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster.
C. Add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Cluster2. Install App1 on Cluster2.
D. Add Server3 as a file share witness for Cluster1.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Your company has a main office and a branch office.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The main office contains domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012. The branch office contains a read-only domain controller (RODC) that runs Windows Server
2012.
You need to recommend a solution to control which Active Directory attributes are replicated to the RODC.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. The partial attribute set
B. The filtered attribute set
C. Application directory partitions
D. Constrained delegation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: RODC filtered attribute set
Some applications that use AD DS as a data store might have credential-like data (such as passwords, credentials, or encryption keys) that you do not want to be stored on an RODC in case the RODC is compromised.
For these types of applications, you can dynamically configure a set of attributes in the schema for domain objects that will not replicate to an RODC. This set of attributes is called the RODC filtered attribute set. Attributes that are defined in
the RODC filtered attribute set are not allowed to replicate to any RODCs in the forest.
Reference: AD DS: Read-Only Domain Controllers
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732801(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 40
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
On several organizational units (OUs), an administrator named Admin1 plans to delegate control of custom tasks. You need to ensure that Admin1 can delegate a custom task named Task1 by using the Delegation of Control Wizard.
What should you do?
A. Add a new class to the Active Directory schema.
B. Configure a custom MMC console.
C. Modify the Delegwiz.inf file.
D. Configure a new authorization store by using Authorization Manager.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To add a task to the Delegation Wizard, you must create a task template by using the following syntax in the Delegwiz.inf file
;——————————————————— [template1]
AppliesToClasses=
Description = “” Etc.
Reference: How to customize the task list in the Delegation Wizard
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/308404

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FREE EMC E20-690 exam questions (1-30)

QUESTION 1
A customer has a Unified VNX field installed in their rack. All documentation materials included in the original shipment
are stored in the rack. Which item from the original package can be used to verify and label cabling prior to an FRU
replacement procedure?
A. The Installation Guide
B. The packing list
C. The Resource CD
D. The unpacking instructions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
After installing a MCx VNX for a new EMC customer, the system admin asks where the latest VNX documentation can
be found. What is the correct location?
A. support.emc.com
B. powerlink.emc.com
C. supportinfo.emc.com
D. elabadvisor.emc.com
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In a VNX for File system, what is connected to the Control Station Eth1 port?
A. Secondary Control Station
B. Primary DM MGMT network
C. Secondary DM MGMT network
D. Customer Network for MGMT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Performing an FRU replacement on a Unified VNX requires managing the ConnectHome system. Which user can check
and change configuration settings for ConnectHome using the CLI on a Control Station?
A. root only
B. sysadmin
C. root or nasadmin D. nasadmin only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer\’s network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
How would you connect to an SP in a degraded state to retrieve SPCollects?
A. RemotelyAnywhere
B. Unisphere
C. HyperTerminal or PuTTY
D. Unisphere Client
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
From where can you download VNX software?
A. EMC Services Partner website
B. EMC FTP site
C. Engineering website
D. Procedure Generator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure exam question
What is the IP address of the indicated network?
A. 128.221.252.0
B. 128.222.1.0
C. 128.221.254.0
D. 127.0.0.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
While at a customer\’s site, you need access to a VNX Storage Processor on IP address 10.11.12.13. You want to use
RemotelyAnywhere but https://10.11.12.13 does not open the login screen.
Which port needs to be added to the URL?
A. 9519
B. 443
C. 80
D. 119
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which details can be determined when viewing a specific event within the andquot;current alertsandquot; page?
A. The storage system that generated the alert The severity type The domain where the storage system resides
B. The number of incidents for the type of alert The severity type The domain where the storage system resides
C. The number of incidents for the type of alert The storage system that generated the alert The domain where the
storage system resides
D. The number of incidents for the type of alert The storage system that generated the alert The severity type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
During a VNX gateway manual installation you are registering Data Mover initiators on the VNX Block back-end array.
Which 8-byte WWN is the initiator for Data Mover 2 HBA 0?
A. 5006016036A00190
B. 5006016136A00190
C. 5006016836A00190
D. 5006016936A00190
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which system check is performed during the installation of a VNX File Unified system?
A. Cable check
B. SMTP validation
C. Modem test
D. DNS resolution
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
In addition to VNX Installation Assistant, what other tools and methods are available for VNX registration?
A. Unisphere, Standalone Registration Wizard
B. VNX Installation Toolkit, Standalone Registration Wizard
C. System Reports Wizard, VNX Installation Toolkit
D. Unisphere, System Reports Wizard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which software tool is used for initializing, registering, and basic configuration of new VNX for File/Unified platforms?
A. VNX Installation Assistant
B. Unisphere Storage System Initialization Wizard
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Unisphere Service Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure exam question
From the highlighted information in the picture, which type of I/O module is represented?
A. 4 port 1G Base T iSCSI
B. 4 port 8G FC
C. 4 port 8Gb copper ethernet
D. 4 port FCoE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Your customer contacts you about an illuminated hardware \’fault\’ LED on a VNX LCC component. Using ESRS, you
access the system with Unisphere and determine that the faulted LCC component needs to be replaced.
How would you obtain the LCC part number for ordering a new replacement part?
A. Use the SolVe Desktop tool and view the specific VNX model parts guide.
B. Access the Alerts section in Unisphere and locate the specific alert for the faulted LCC.
C. Launch Unisphere Service Manager and perform a system verification operation.
D. Access the Hardware for File section of Unisphere and locate the faulted LCC.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
You are onsite to replace a faulted Data Mover within a VNX8000 and note the following:
The storage administrators have received alerts that Server_6 has faulted but Server_6 now appears online.
Server_3 is configured as a standby for Server_2
Server_7 is configured as a standby for Server_6
Which slot in the diagram contains the active data mover Server_6?
A. Server_7
B. Server_6
C. Server_2
D. Server_3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You have completed a VNX Unified installation and are now verifying the configuration. You notice that the
ConnectHome configuration is incorrect. You attempt to correct parameters using the CLI and are denied access. What
could be the problem?
A. Not logged in as the root user
B. Not logged in as the sysadmin
C. Not logged in as nasadmin
D. Not logged in as administrator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which operations can you perform with VNX Installation Assistant?
A. Create RAID groups, storage groups, and LUNs
B. Configure LUN masking for non-VNX host access
C. Configure SnapSure and replication
D. Configure MirrorView and SnapView
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
When using USM\’s Capture Diagnostic Data feature, where are the files automatically stored upon completion of this
task?
A. They are in the C:\EMC\repository folder located on the system running USM.
B. They are automatically uploaded to EMC support if the system is registered.
C. The user is prompted to either view them or upload them to EMC if ConnectHome is configured.
D. They are automatically stored in the repository located on the VNX vault drives.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure exam question
Which connection is indicated by the number 7 in this VNX SPE Management Module?
A. Serial Console B. Serial (unused)
C. Service port
D. Serial Management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which storage subsystems can be directly connected to a VNX gateway through Fibre Channel?
A. CLARiiON and Symmetrix only
B. CLARiiON and VNX only
C. Symmetrix, CLARiiON, and VNX
D. Symmetrix and VNX only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
You are an EMC service provider and want to install the ESRS IP client solution. The workstation on which you want to
install this software is on a network with a proxy server. What information must you provide in order to be able to install
the solution?
A. You must provide your proxy server IP address and the array IP address.
B. Service partners are not allowed to install the ESRS IP client at a customer site.
C. You must provide your Powerlink SecurID credentials and the proxy configuration.
D. You must provide the array serial number and the proxy configuration.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
You are upgrading the VNX OE for File to a new version and choose to reboot the Data Movers during the upgrade.
How long will the users lose access to their files?
A. Access is lost for a time estimated by the USM tool.
B. Access is lost for two minutes.
C. Access to the files is never lost.
D. Access is lost for a time estimated by the HealthCheck tool.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure exam question
Which letter refers to the SPSs?
A. D
B. B
C. C
D. A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which condition must be met before starting the Unisphere Storage System Initialization Utility?
A. Computer used for the installation is on the same subnet as the storage system
B. Computer used for the installation is on the same subnet as the VNX internal network
C. Amber lights on the power supplies are blinking at 4 Hz
D. Blue lights on the Storage Processors are blinking at 1 Hz
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28In which folder can the SPcollects be found when accessing a storage processor through Remotely Anywhere?
A. c:\dumps
B. c:\temp
C. c:\EMC
D. c:\NDU
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
You are sent to a secure customer site to install a VNX, where the use of cell phones and mobile hot spots is prohibited.
When you arrive you find that your VNX Installation procedure file is corrupted.
Using one of the customer\’s workstations where can a copy of the VNX installation procedure be found?
A. mydocs.emc.com/VNX
B. support.emc.com/VNX
C. emc.com/engineering/VNX
D. powerlink.emc.com/VNX
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You have just replaced a defective component in a Data Mover. Which command can be run to verify the system returns
no errors?
A. # /nas/bin/nas_checkup
B. # /nas/bin/nas_server -info -all
C. # watch /nasmcd/getreason
D. # dmesg
Correct Answer: A

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pass4itsure The Open Group OG0-091 Vce And Pdf | 100 pass

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III. TOGAF® 9 Part 1 Exam | Certification and Accreditation: https://certification.opengroup.org/examinations/togaf/togaf9-part1

free The Open Group OG0-091 practice questions & answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Which one of the following categories from the Document Categorization model consists of the normative parts of
TOGAF which are considered central to its usage?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Mandated
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Referenced
E. TOGAF Supporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a true statement about the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. The TOGAF Architecture Development Method mandates the use of the Technical Reference Model for large
complex architecture projects
B. The Technical Reference Model is an integral part of the TOGAF Architecture Development Method
C. The Technical Reference Model should not be modified
D. The Technical Reference Model includes a set of graphical models and a corresponding taxonomy
E. The Technical Reference Model provides a direct mapping to the Zachman Framework
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following best describes the next step in an Architecture Compliance Review once the scope of the
review has been determined?
A. Interview the project principals to obtain background information
B. Prepare the Architecture Compliance Review report
C. Schedule the Architecture Review meeting
D. Send the assessment report to the Architecture Review co-ordinator
E. Tailor the checklists to address business requirements
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements best describes the Requirements Management process? A. It is used to develop requirements for Transition Architectures that deliver business value
B. It is used to dispose of, address and prioritize architecture requirements
C. It is used to establish requirements for Phase A
D. It is used to manage architecture requirements throughout the ADM cycle
E. It is used to review business requirements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Complete the sentence: TOGAF provides a set of reference materials for establishing an architecture function within an
organization known as the_________.
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Content Framework
C. Architecture Landscape
D. Architecture Repository
E. Architecture Roadmap
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Complete the sentence. According to TOGAF, all of the following are responsibilities of an Architecture Board, except
______________________.
A. Ensuring consistency between sub-architectures
B. Ensuring flexibility of the enterprise architecture to meet business needs
C. Improving the maturity of the organization\’s architecture discipline
D. Monitoring of architecture contracts
E. Preparing architecture review reports
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which model within TOGAF is closely related to the concept of Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The ARTS data model
B. The Architecture Governance Framework
C. The Enterprise Continuum
D. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model E. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhich can be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which pair of the following responses best completes the sentence? Architecture building blocks ____, where as
Solution Building blocks ____
A. are assembled; are single function components
B. are single function components; are groups of architecture building blocks
C. are reusable; are not reusable
D. define the architecture; provide the existing legacy system
E. define functionality; define the implementation of functionality
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which one of the following is responsible for the acceptance and sign-off of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. Architecture Board
B. Architecture Review Co-ordinator
C. CIO
D. Lead Enterprise Architect
E. Project Leader
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
According to TOGAF, Which of the following activities is described as part of the approach in the Preliminary Phase of
the ADM? A. Creating the Architecture Vision deliverable
B. Defining a set of Architecture Principles
C. Developing an Architecture Contract
D. Extending the business scenario with business modeling
E. Preparing a consolidated Gap Analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What class of architectural information within the Architecture Repository defines processes that support governance of
the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Capability
B. Architecture Landscape
C. Architecture Metamodel
D. Governance Log
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how the Enterprise Continuum is used when developing an enterprise architecture?
A. To coordinate with the other management frameworks in use
B. To describe how an architecture addresses stakeholder concerns
C. To identify and understand business requirements
D. To provide a system for continuous monitoring E. To structure re-usable architecture and solution assets
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which of the following best describes the purpose of an architecture compliance review?
A. To review the validity of a project\’s Architecture Vision
B. To review a project for compliance to external laws and regulations
C. To review a project against established architecture criteria and business objectives
D. To ensure that stakeholder concerns are being addressed by a project
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which phase of the TOGAF ADM is the first phase directly concerned with the planning for the implementation of the
target architecture(s)?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which section of the TOGAF document contains a structured metamodel for architectural artifacts?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When determining the requirements for enterprise architecture work in the Preliminary Phase, Which of the following is
not a business imperative that should be considered?
A. Business requirements B. Cultural aspirations
C. Forecast financial requirements
D. Strategic Intent
E. Technical elegance
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the purpose of an Architecture Definition Document?
A. To act as a deliverable container for artifacts created during a project
B. To ensure that architecture information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time
C. To govern the architecture throughout its implementation process
D. To provide a high-level view of the end architecture product
E. To show progression of change from the Baseline Architecture to the Target Architecture
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which one of the following does TOGAF Part VII recommend in order to implement an Enterprise Architecture
Capability?
A. Develop an Architecture Roadmap
B. Populate the Architecture Repository
C. Populate the Enterprise Continuum
D. Use the Architecture Development Method
E. Use the Implementation Governance Phase
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which one of the following is an objective of the Preliminary Phase of the ADM?
A. To define the Baseline Architecture for this cycle of the ADM
B. To define the application systems for the Target Architecture
C. To define the framework and methodologies to be used
D. To define the relevant stakeholders and their concerns
E. To define and prioritise work packages
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Complete the sentence. All of the following are parts of the conceptual structure of the TOGAF Architecture Governance
Framework, except ______
A. Content
B. Context
C. Process Flow Control
D. Repository
E. Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the classification of architectural change in the case where
multiple server systems are being consolidated to a single system?
A. A bottom-up change to enhance operational capability
B. An incremental change handled via change management techniques
C. A re-architecting change that puts the whole architecture through an ADM cycle
D. A revision change of the enterprise architecture
E. A simplification change handled via change management techniques
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 24
Which one of the following best describes a primary use of the Architecture Vision document?
A. A checklist for compliance reviews
B. An evaluation tool to select vendors to conduct a proof of concept demonstration
C. A tool for calculating detailed cost estimates
D. A tool for project planning the implementation activities
E. A tool for selling the benefits of the proposed capability to stakeholders
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Complete the sentence. As the architecture evolves, the assets in the Solutions Continuum progress towards a (n)
_____ A. Common Systems Architecture
B. Industry Specific Architecture
C. Foundation Solution
D. Organization Specific Solution
E. Technology Neutral Implementation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which one of the following is a key objective of Phase A of the TOGAF ADM?
A. To create a roadmap that describes the evolution of the architecture over time
B. To prepare a Solution Architecture for the enterprise
C. To define an IT Strategy that maps out the technology infrastructure
D. To allocate the resources needed to implement the architecture project
E. To articulate an Architecture Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which of the following TOGAF components was created to enable architects to design architectures addressing
Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The Architecture Repository
B. The Enterprise Continuum
C. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model
D. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Complete the sentence. In the Preliminary Phase, all of the following are part of preparing the organization to undertake
successful enterprise architecture, except __________.
A. defining architecture principles
B. defining relationships between management frameworks
C. defining the enterprise
D. evaluating the enterprise architecture maturity
E. identifying stakeholders and their concerns
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
According to TOGAF, in which sequence should Application Architecture and Data Architecture be developed in Phase
C?
A. Application Architecture should be developed first, then Data Architecture
B. Application Architecture should be developed concurrently with Data Architecture
C. Data Architecture should be developed first, then Application Architecture
D. Application Architecture and Data Architecture may be developed in either sequence
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following describes a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. To define the capabilities of the organization
B. To communicate the technical readiness of the project
C. To evaluate the readiness of the organization to undergo change
D. To produce a new Request for Architecture Work
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference Library,
Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Complete the sentence. TOGAF covers the development of four architecture domains, Application, Business, Data
and__________.
A. Capability
B. Segment
C. Technology D. Transition
E. Vision
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following architectures in the Architecture Continuum contains the most re-usable architecture elements?
A. Common Systems Architectures
B. Foundation Architectures
C. Industry Architectures
D. Organization-Specific Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the Architecture Requirements Specification?
A. A document that triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
B. A qualitative view of the solution to communicate the intent of the architect
C. A quantitative view of the solution to measure the implementation
D. A record of deviations from the planned architectural approach
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which of the following describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. A Common Systems Architecture
B. A Foundation Architecture
C. An Industry-Specific Architecture
D. An Organization-Specific Architecture
E. A Solution Architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Complete the sentence. The Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique is primarily focused on ___
A. determining if the organization is ready to accept change
B. planning the migration steps needed to achieve the transformation C. ensuring that there are adequate trained developers and engineers to implement the solution
D. ensuring that there is sufficient financial capacity to execute the desired transformation
E. determining if there is adequate stakeholder support for the implementation process
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which one of the following statements about TOGAF Building Blocks is true?
A. Building blocks at a functional level are known as Solutions Building Blocks
B. Solutions Building Blocks are selected in Phases A, B, C and D
C. The specification of a building block should be loosely coupled to its implementation
D. The gap analysis technique should be used to identify building blocks for re-use
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
According to TOGAF, Which of the following is a characteristic of a Foundation Architecture?
A. It contains only solution building blocks
B. It contains business functions and processes specific to a particular industry sector
C. It contains building blocks and their corresponding standards
D. It includes a model of application components and application services software, including brokering applications
E. It includes models for common high-level business functions, such as supply chain management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Statement of Architecture Work?
A. It contains an assessment of the current architecture requirements
B. It defines the scope and approach to complete an architecture project
C. It is sent from the sponsor and triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
D. It provides a high-level aspirational view of the end architecture project
E. It provides a schedule for implementation of the target architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which section of the TOGAF template for defining principles should highlight the requirements for carrying out theprinciple?
A. Implications
B. Name
C. Rationale
D. Statement
Correct Answer: A

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How Does It Feel to Prepare For CompTIA Certification

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CompTIA

CompTIA, the American Computer Industry Association (comptia-computing Technology Industry Association), is the most influential, largest and world-leading industry association in the global ICT arena, since its inception in 1982, has been committed to promoting the development of information technology (ICT) industries and related practitioners through a variety of standards, professional competencies, educational and business solutions. It is considered to be one of the top trade associations in the IT industry. CompTIA is headquartered in Chicago, USA and has offices in Amsterdam, Beijing, Brussels, Dubai, Dusseldorf, Hong Kong, Johns, London, Sao Paulo, Sydney, Tokyo, Toronto and Washington, D.C. The organization publishes more than 50 industry studies each year to track trends and changes in the industry.

Since the establishment of the association, more than 2.2 million people have obtained CompTIA certification. CompTIA Certification is an industry-leading certificate that can help you start and develop your IT career. Whether you’re looking for a certification for your first it job, or you’re ready to upgrade your IT career with advanced certification, pass4 it sure can help you. It takes time and money to get it certifications, so it’s no wonder why people always ask what they’re going to get in return. However, the benefits of getting a certification are not just a single card in your wallet or a certificate on your wall.

Five Major Advantages of IT Certification

    1. Proof of your skills and knowledge

First, a certificate is a basis for proving that you have skills that are not imaginary to a potential employer or to your current employer. This is not just a simple test of what you know, but also a test of how you perform tasks and solve problems. For example, CompTIA certification will cover performance-based issues and test your hands-on skills by requiring you to perform certain tasks.

    2. Remain competitive and qualify for employment

CompTIA’s cognitive study of HR IT training and certification shows that 91% of recruiters see it certification as a reliable basis for determining whether a candidate is good or not. This is because they know that qualification is a benchmark for the knowledge, skills, and competencies that IT staff has, so that they can ensure that the IT staff they are recruiting is what they need. If you are looking for government departments or government contractors to work, they often need a certain kind of it certification.

    3. Improving the proficiency of work faster

Many people apply for jobs that can provide growth opportunities, which means they may not have all the skills they need when they apply. Being prepared to strive for certification is a good way to increase your skills and improve your self. Taking classes, reading a learning guide, and completing an online training module can help you get the skills you need for a small piece of work. You can immediately get what you have learned and put it into practice. When you feel ready, you can take a certification exam to verify the new knowledge you have learned.

    4. An investment in your career

Getting certified is not an easy task, it takes time to prepare, and it’s not cheap.
Whether you or your employer is paying for it, getting a certification indicates that you are interested in career development and are willing to invest in the money.

    5. Keeping your skills up to date

Qualification certification, especially recognized qualification certification, requires continuing education to ensure its effectiveness. By attending conferences, online seminars, teaching courses, and writing blogs or other publications, you can share your knowledge and learn about the latest developments in the industry. This will not only keep your certificate up to date, but also show others that you are passionate about your job and hope to become the best it professional by continuing to learn.

Whether you’ve just entered the IT industry or have worked in the field for years, getting it certification can help you demonstrate your awareness and enthusiasm for the industry and help you improve your career space. If you are interested, you can check out the CompTIA career roadmap to find out what qualifications you need to work in your career.

What about salary expectations? CompTIA Security + Certified individual’s average wage is 82,779 dollars. Where you live seems to play a role in setting your salary and experience (as you would expect). Still, 82,779 dollars is certainly pretty good!
How is this salary the same as other CompTIA certification?
According to CompTIA, here is the average wage of their certified holders, ranked number one:

  • CompTIA Project + Salary: 100,862 USD
  • CompTIA RFID + Salary: 87,663 USD
  • CompTIA Server + Salary: 84,997 USD
  • CompTIA Linux + Salary: 83,018 USD
  • CompTIA Security + Salary: 80,066 USD
  • CompTIA Network + Salary: 71,207 USD
  • CompTIA A + Salary: 67,954 USD So we can see that the Global Knowledge Survey and CompTIA’s forecast security + salary numbers are very similar, with only 5,000 dollars between them.

CompTIA personnel are able to implement secure computer and network systems to protect sensitive data from hacker attacks. IT security experts are also responsible for monitoring the vulnerability network and responding to and defending against network attacks immediately. Security vulnerabilities can often be unattended for long periods of time, so security professionals have the skills and capabilities to detect intrusions immediately. Other skills include vulnerability assessment, identity and access management, social engineering skills, data loss prevention, encryption, regulatory governance and compliance, and email/web content filtering. Another key element of your role is to review and write about how and why you can protect your network and computer systems, which is especially important in your quest for investment.

CompTIA Certification has been recognized internationally and is considered to be an excellent supplier-neutral certification. The main purpose of obtaining information security certification is to prove to employers that you understand the safety principles and that you can implement measures to protect and protect your network and computer systems. The experience of obtaining certification and the certifications you have are unique and valuable. In fact, training, how you prepare tests, and other variables can affect the value you derive from your certification.

CompTIA

CompTIA A + Certification

A + certification qualifies you for a variety of IT jobs, including:

  • IT support experts
  • Technical support staff
  • Technical Support Analyst
  • Desktop Support Technician
  • Senior IT Technician
  • PC and Hardware Repair

IT professionals who get CompTIA A + certification on their resumes need better jobs, higher salaries, and more portals to accept new, multiple-industry opportunities. In short, using CompTIA A +, you will be able to verify the following skills:

  • Installing and supporting Windows operating systems and other mobile devices
  • Configuring a portable computer
  • Troubleshoot problems with PCs and mobile devices
  • Identify security vulnerabilities
  • Protect the system from vulnerabilities

This course is ideal for network engineers, planners, administrators, developers, and system analysts.

CompTIA A + service technician salary based on annual experience

  • Less than 1 years → 42,860 USD
  • 1-4 year → 47,802 USD
  • 5-9 year → 55,200 USD

According to CompTIA, “IT Professionals with CV certification can get a better job, get a higher salary, and have more opportunities to take on new, multiple industry opportunities.” According to Computerworld’s salary survey, the average wage for 2015 CompTIA A + Certification technology was 50,364 dollars. “Now that’s what the statistics say, let’s look at the actual work that is being offered now.” As of February 2018, the “Desktop support technician” on Indeed.com’s ad revenue was 47,000 dollars.

CompTIA

CompTIA Security Certification

If you are interested in the area of security in the IT field, then it may be a good choice for CompTIA. The certification is designed to ensure the skills and expertise to identify risks; Participate in risk mitigation activities; Provides infrastructure, information, operations, and application security.
The career opportunities after this certification are:

  • Security Architect
  • Security Engineer
  • Security Analyst
  • Security Administrator
  • System administrator
  • Network administrator
  • Security Advisor/Expert
  • Information Security Analyst
  • Network engineer
  • Information Technology (IT) Manager
  • Network administrator
  • Information Technology Specialists
  • Network security Engineer
  • Computer operator
  • Senior Technical Support Engineer
  • Senior Software engineer

CompTIA security+ Certification is the only information security area in the global 147 countries have been recognized in the IT professional technology certification.

CompTIA

Pass4itsure Team

Good things are never easy. It all depends on you, how do you go? It’s really hard to get through if you think CompTIA is hard to get through. So please do not take any negative approach, you must actively take all measures.
To get a good score on the CompTIA exam, pass4itsure suggests you must follow a few steps.

  1. Keep positive and confident in your career
  2. Solve the Compitia exam questions
  3. You must refer to some CompTIA online video
  4. Join the famous CompTIA Online training center

After this you also face some problems, or you have some questions about CompTIA A + certification, please feel free to contact the pass4itsure.com. They provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues.

The internet is full of resources and is used to learn by adding exams. Some of them are great, others will hinder your study. Here are a list of resources that I personally think are useful for those who wish to learn and pass the CompTIA exam. To do this, you can enable pass4itsure to crack CompTIA certification:

1. Learning and Training and Watching video course
there are many excellent courses on the Internet, but according to my experience, Pass4itsure is the best choice at present. Best training and newest video study.

2. Familiar with certification examination
Read the certificate guide. No matter how good a video training course or trainer is, I don’t think he or she can mention all the important theoretical information.

3. Pass4itsure PDF file
If you like reading from the actual book, my personal favorite. Content refers to the situation without boring you. A good overview for you.

4. Pass4itsure exam test simulator
It’s important to be confident in the exercise test and get used to the problem so that you don’t waste it at any time in the exam. CompTIA Certification Examination of machine learning test preparation, very novel, but they provide unique features and very competitive prices. This is important for deep understanding and not forgetting all content in a few days. I strongly suggest you go to pass4itsure website to view.

CompTIA

5. Registration and participation
in the certification examination Including your credentials, you will enter the identity of the more than 2 million IT experts who hold the CompTIA certification. You now have a globally recognised credential designed to develop your IT profession. The CompTIA Certification logo will help you stand out and get attention through your CV and LinkedIn profile.

6.pass4itsure.com-Free online resources to provide wonderful learning notes
I created this site to help other people get certified. In general, this is the best advice I can offer. Don’t just memorize test questions and answers. Take some time to fully understand what you are learning.

Pass4itsure will tell you what you will learn on your website. If you scroll down the page, you will see a learning plan. If you are familiar with everything that is learned in these courses, you can get a learning guide. But if not, it’s worth spending some money on training, whether it’s online, self-paced or mentor, because in the long run you have a bigger chance of increasing your salary and getting the money back. You can view salary comparisons, payroll surveys, and search wages. Pass4itsure will help you maximize your investment.

The best way with Pass4itsure to prepare for the CompTIA exam

  • Decide whether to attend instructor-led training or self-study

First, it is important to determine whether you are learning through instructor-led training or self-study. Some people start with a book to complete and master all the internal information work knowledge. Other people want to sit in the classroom and be guided by skilled coaches in a structured learning environment to be ready at the start of the exam. There are also many gradients between the two, which are the ideal way to prepare for CompTIA exams. But as a first step, you need to choose whether you need instructor-led training to guide you through the material for a given certificate, or if you can prepare yourself. If you are prepared, Pass4itsure blog can provide you with the latest learning materials.

  • Ebook and other online content (Video, PPT)

Pass4itsure has plenty of resources to help you learn, according to the official CompTIA learning guide. You can read the book at your own pace and continue to review to update your understanding and make sure you have mastered it. In the absence of classes, it is also easy to find video content to take advantage of the classroom experience.

  • Write down your plan

When you have a lot of plans, it is worthwhile to write a list. Uninstalling into the list, everything you want to know during the test day-from what you need to bring to your plan to get to the test center-will keep you from forgetting something at the last minute. This will keep your mind focused on more productive things, like learning. If you feel more comfortable with the handwritten list on your notepad, do it. If you rely on the planning application, make a list here. This format is not required as long as you have a comprehensive, step-by-step guide to prepare yourself, into the test center and ready to go. The Pass4itsure test Simulator can help you develop your exam plan in detail.

  • Take part in the practice exam

Pass4itsure almost provides exercises for CompTIA exams, including a +,network +,security +. In addition to keeping you informed of the overall readiness, you can also take the best online Practice test offered by pass4itsure. Taking the Pass4itsure exam can help you identify areas where you are experiencing problems.

  • Skip the odd exam question

These tests are about managing time and scoring on the basis of failure. So if a problem looks too difficult, skip it! In tests like Security +, there are beta problems, and these seemingly random questions are being tried for future beta releases. They don’t score, it’s good, although it’s hard to tell what a beta problem is, and it’s not a beta issue, so don’t answer too many questions. Although the beta issue is not a feature of all CompTIA exams, skipping a challenge will give you more time to answer the questions you know. When you return to a question, you may see it in a new light or have a confident answer.

  • Learn about multiple selection techniques

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QUESTION 1
The InnoDB engine has a feature known as clustered indexes. Which three statements are true about clustered indexes as used in InnoDB?
A. A primary key must exist for creation of a clustered index.
B. A primary key is used as a clustered index.
C. A clustered index is a grouping of indexes from different tables into a global index for faster searching.
D. If no indexes exist, a hidden clustered index is generated based on row IDs.
E. A clustered index provides direct access to a page containing row data.
F. The first unique index is always used as a clustered index and not a primary key.
G. A clustered index allows fulltext searching within InnoDB,
1Z0-883 exam Correct Answer: BDG

QUESTION 2
You are creating a new server with the same accounts as an existing server. You do this by importing a mysqldump file
of the mysql database. You test whether the import was successful by using the following commands:
Mysqlandgt; select user, host, password from mysql.user;
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9 rows in set (0.00 sec)
Mysqlandgt; show grants for `admin\’@\’%\’;
ERROR 1141 (42000): There is no such grant defined for user `admin\’ on host `%\’
Which command will fix this issue?
A. CREATE USER `admin\’ @\’%\’;
B. GRANT USAGE ON *.* TO `admin\’@\’%\’;
C. FLUSH PRIVILEGES;
D. FLUSH HOST CACHE;
E. UPDATE mysql.user SET Create_user_priv = `Y\’ WHERE user= `admin\’;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Compare a typical Distributed Replicated Block Device (DRBD) with MySQL Standard Replication using master-slave replication. Which two statements are correct?
A. Both technologies use the TCP/IP stack as their primary transmission medium.
B. DRBD uses shared-disk technology.
C. Both technologies guarantee an identical copy of data on the secondary node.
D. Only MySQL can maintain a time-delayed copy of data on the secondary node.
1Z0-883 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A user has deleted the wrong row in a table and you are preparing a point-in-time recovery skipping the DELETE event. The server is configured with:
1z0-883 dumps
You have identified that the DELETE statement to skip has the Global Transaction Identifier (GTID)
dbbe7da-fe25-11e2-b6c7-0800274aa49e:5 and you replay the binary log with:
Mysqlbinlog exclude-gtides=\’ dbbe07da-fe25-11e2-b6c7-0800274aa49e:5\’ binlog.00000.2 | mysql
However all events were skipped instead of just the one deleting the wrong row. What is the reason for this?
A. Mysqlbinlog ignores arguments to exclude-gtids-it means ignore all events with GTIDs.
B. The server keeps track of which GTIDs have already been executed and skips those.
C. Enforce_gtid_consistency is set to ON.
D. Gtid_mode must be set to AUTO during point in time recoveries.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three statements are true about memory buffer allocation by a MySQL Server?
A. Global buffers such as the InnoDB buffer pool are allocated after the server starts, and are never freed.
B. Thread buffers are allocated when a client connects, and are freed when the client disconnects.
C. Buffers that are needed for certain operation are allocated when the operation starts, and freed when it ends.
D. User buffers are allocated at server startup and freed when the user is dropped.
E. All dynamic buffers that are set with a SET GLOBAL statement immediately get allocated globally, and are never freed.
1Z0-883 pdf Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which two capabilities are granted with the SUPER privilege?
A. Allowing a client to kill other client connections
B. Allowing a client to shut down the server
C. Allowing change of the server runtime configuration
D. Allowing client accounts to take over the account of another user
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
You want to shutdown a running Mysql Server cleanly. Which three commands that are valid on either Windows or Linux will achieve this?
A. Shellandgt; pkill u mysql mysqld_safe
B. Shellandgt; service mysql safe_exit
C. Shellandgt; /etc/init.d/mysql stop
D. Shellandgt; mysqladmin u root p shutdown
E. Mysqlandgt; STOP PROCESS mysqld;
F. Shellandgt; net stop mysql
G. Shellandgt; nmc mysql shutdown
1Z0-883 vce Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
Which three data components are needed for point-in-time recovery?
A. The error log
B. The backup log
C. The general query log
D. Binary logs
E. The data backup
F. Configuration files
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 9
Your developers have created table to store some of their program\’s data. After examining the slow Query Log, you see that they are using the LIKE operator and SUBSTER () functions against a VARCHAR (10000) column quite often. An example of the start of one row of data: `GREEN01020495888331993-12-10/2…\’ What should you do to improve the overall performance?
A. Convert the column to TEXT and add a fulltext index to the table.
B. Create multiple prefix indexes of differing lengths.
C. Convert their column to BINARY.
D. Redesign the table so that the most commonly searched for string patterns are in their own columns.
1Z0-883 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What are three actions performed by the mysql_secure_installation tool?
A. It prompts you to set the root user account password.
B. It checks whether file permissions are appropriate within datadir.
C. It asks to remove the test database, which is generated at installation time.
D. It can delete any anonymous accounts.
E. It verifies that all users are configuration with the longer password hash.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
Full Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability (ACID) compliance is a necessity for a new application, which heavily reads and writes data.
This requires the following config file options:
Sync_binlog=1 Innodb_flush_log_at_trx_commit=1 Innodb_doublewrite=1
However, this configuration is expected to introduce disk I/O overhead. What three changes will reduce disk I/O overheads?
A. Use of soft links for database directories on the same physical disk
B. Use of separate directories on the same physical disk for log files and data files
C. Placement of InnoDB log files and datadir on separate physical disks
D. Allocation of RAM to the buffer pool such that more of the data can fit in RAM
E. Use of delay_key_write=ON for batch index update
1Z0-883 dumps Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12
You adjust a default configuration to the following /etc/my.cnf on a Linux installation:
[mysqld]
Loq-bin
Binrylog_format=ROW
You do not notice the spelling error in binrylog_format and restart your production server. How does the MySQL server behave with incorrectly spelled options?
A. Mysqld uses internal configuration versioning and reverts to the previous configuration.
B. When using mysql_config_editor for configuration adjustments, it detects incorrect syntax and typing mistakes.
C. The mysqld_safe script skips the unknown variable and starts using the remaining configuration changes.
D. Mysqld prints to the error log about an unknown variable, and then exits.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which hardware storage option, when set up with redundant disks, offers the least stability, availability, and reliability for Mysql data?
A. RAID 5
B. iSCSI
C. SAN (Storage Area Network)
D. NFS (Networked File System)
1Z0-883 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
In a test database, you issue the SELECT … INTO OUTFILE statement to create a file with your t1 table data. You then TRUNCATE this table to empty it. Mysqlandgt; SELECT * INTO OUTFILE `/tmp/t1.sql\’ from t1; mysqlandgt; TRUNCATE t1; Which two methods will restore data to the t1 table?
A. Mysqlandgt; LOAD DATA INFILE `/tmp/t1.sql\’ INTO TABLE t1;
B. $ mysqladmin u root p h localhost test restore /tmp/t1.sql
C. $ mysql u root p h localhost test andlt; /tmp/t1.sql
D. $ mysqlinport u root p h localhost test /tmp/t1.sql
E. Mysqlandgt; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES FROM `/tmp/t1.sql\’;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You attempt to connect to a Mysql Server by using the mysql program. However, you receive the following notice: ERROR 2059 (HY000): Authentication plugin `mysql_clear_password\’ connot be loaded: plugin not enabled What would you run to fix the issue?
A. The mysql client with the ignore-password-hashing option
B. The mysql_secure_installation script to update server security settings
C. The mysql client with the enable-cleartext-plugin option
D. The mysql_upgrade script
E. The install plugin command for the mysql_cleartext_password plugin
1Z0-883 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two are correct steps in taking a binary backup of MyISAM tables?
A. Always stop the server prior to the backup.
B. Stop the server or lock the tables prior to the backup.
C. Stop the server or lock the databases prior to the backup.
D. Make a copy of the .frm, .myd, and the .myi files.
E. Make a copy of the binary log and tablespace files.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
What are four capabilities of the mysql client program?
A. Creating and dropping databases
B. Creating, dropping, and modifying tables and indexes
C. Shutting down the server by using the SHUTDOWN command
D. Creating and administering users
E. Displaying replication status information
F. Initiating a binary backup of the database by using the START BACKUP command
1Z0-883 exam Correct Answer: BDEF

QUESTION 18
The following commands are available in the Linux binary distributions of Mysql:
Mysqld
Mysqld_safe
Mysql.server
What is the correct description of each of these commands?
A.Mysqld is the server. Mysqld_safe is a shell script that invokes mysqld. Mysql.server is a wrapper for mysql_safe.
B.Mysqld is a shell script that starts mysql.server. Mysqld_safe causes the server to start up in data recovery mode. Mysql.server is the server.
C.Mysqld is the server. Mysqld_safe causes the server to start up in data recovery mode. Mysql.server is a wrapper for mysqld_safe.
D.Mysql, mysqld.safe, and mysql.server reside in different locations but are all symlinked to the same script.
Correct Answer: B

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