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[New Version June 2018] 100% Pass Rate Oracle 1Z0-808 Dumps PDF Oracle Certified Associate Exam With Accurate Answers Youtube Study 236Q Released 1-29

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Free Pass4itsure VCE & PDF File for Oracle 1Z0-808 Dumps Real Exam Quetsions

QUESTION 1
Given the content of three files:
Which statement is true?
Which statement is true?
A. Only the A.Java file compiles successfully.
B. Only the B.java file compiles successfully.
C. Only the C.java file compiles successfully.
D. The A.Java and B.java files compile successfully.
E. The B.java and C.java files compile successfully.
F. The A.Java and C.java files compile successfully.
1Z0-808 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragment:
Which option represents the state of the num array after successful completion of the outer loop?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Given:
What is the result?
A. 120
B. 120D
C. A NumberFormatException will be thrown.
D. Compilation fails due to error at line 5.
E. Compilation tails due to error at line 8.
1Z0-808 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Given:
Which of the following is equivalent to the above code fragment?
A. System.out.printLn(xandgt;10?andquot;andgt;,\’: andquot;andlt;andquot;:,\’=andquot;);
B. System.out.println(xandgt;10? andquot;andgt;andquot;?andquot;andlt;andquot;:andquot;=andquot;);
C. System.out.println(xandgt;10?andquot;andgt;andquot;:xandlt;10?andquot;andlt;andquot;:andquot;=andquot;);
D. System.out.printLn(xandgt;10?andquot;andgt;andquot;?,\’andlt;andquot;?andquot;=andquot;);
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
int [] array = {1,2,3,4,5};
for (int i: array) {
if ( i andlt; 2) {
keyword1 ;
}
System.out.println(i);
if ( i == 3) {
keyword2 ;
}}
What should keyword1 and keyword2 be respectively, in oreder to produce output 2345?
A. continue, break
B. break, break
C. break, continue
D. continue, continue
1Z0-808 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Given:
public class Test {
static boolean bVar;
public static void main(String[] args) {
boolean bVar1 = true;
int count =8;
do {
System.out.println(andquot;Hello Java! andquot; +count);
if (count andgt;= 7) {
bVar1 = false;
}
} while (bVar != bVar1 andamp;andamp; count andgt; 4);
count -= 2;
}
}
What is the result?
A. Hello Java! 8 Hello Java! 6 Hello Java! 4
B. Hello Java! 8 Hello Java! 6
C. Hello Java! 8
D. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Given:
Which is true?
A. Sum for 0 to 0 = 55
B. Sum for 0 to 10 = 55
C. Compilation fails due to error on line 6.
D. Compilation fails due to error on line 7.
E. An Exception is thrown at the runtime.
1Z0-808  vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Given the code fragment:
What is the result?
A. Match 1
B. Match 2
C. No Match
D. A NullPointerException is thrown at runtime.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Given:
And given the commands:
javac Test.Java
Java Test Hello
What is the result?
A. Success
B. Failure
C. Compilation fails.
D. An exception is thrown at runtime
1Z0-808  exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
public class ForTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int[] arrar = {1,2,3};
for ( foo ) {
}
}
}
Which three are valid replacements for foo so that the program will compiled and run?
A. int i: array
B. int i = 0; i andlt; 1; i++
C. ;;
D. ; i andlt; 1; i++
E. ; i andlt; 1;
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
Given:
What is the result?
A. Marrown String out of limits JesOran
B. Marrown String out of limits Array out of limits
C. Marrown String out of limits
D. Marrown NanRed JesOran
1Z0-808  dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Given:
A. ns = 50 S = 125 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 100 S = 125
B. ns = 50 S = 125 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 0 S = 125
C. ns = 50 S = 50 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 100 S = 100
D. ns = 50 S = 50 ns = 125 S = 125 ns = 0 S = 125
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Given:
What is the result?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
1Z0-808 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Given: What is the result?
A. Good Day! Good Luck!
B. Good Day! Good Day!
C. Good Luck! Good Day!
D. Good Luck! Good Luck!
E. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Given:
public class Natural {
private int i;
void disp() {
while (i andlt;= 5) {
for (int i=1; i andlt;=5;) {
System.out.print(i + andquot; andquot;);
i++;
}
i++;
}
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
new Natural().disp();
}
}
What is the result?
A. Prints 1 2 3 4 5 once
B. Prints 1 3 5 once
C. Prints 1 2 3 4 5 five times
D. Prints 1 2 3 4 5 six times
E. Compilation fails
1Z0-808 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Given:
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int arr[] = new int[4];
arr[0] = 1;
arr[1] = 2;
arr[2] = 4;
arr[3] = 5;
int sum = 0;
try {
for (int pos = 0; pos andlt;= 4; pos++) {
sum = sum + arr[pos];
}
} catch (Exception e) {
System.out.println(andquot;Invalid indexandquot;);
}
System.out.println(sum);
}
}
What is the result?
A. 12
B. Invalid Index
C. Invalid Index
D. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Consider following method
Which statement is true?
A. This method is invalid.
B. This method can be used only in an interface.
C. This method can return anything.
D. This method can be used only in an interface or an abstract class.
E. None of above.
1Z0-808 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Given the following code for the classes MyException and Test:
What is the result?
A. A B. B
C. Either A or B
D. A B
E. A compile time error occurs at line n1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Given the following two classes:
How should you write methods in the ElectricAccount class at line n1 so that the member variable bill is always equal to
the value of the member variable kwh multiplied by the member variable rate? Any amount of electricity used by a customer (represented by an instance of the customer class) must contribute to the customer\’s bill (represented by the member variable bill) through the method useElectricity method. An instance of the customer class should never be able to tamper with or decrease the value of the member variable bill.
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
1Z0-808 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Given:
class Cake {
int model;
String flavor;
Cake() {
model = 0;
flavor = andquot;Unknownandquot;;
}
}
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Cake c = new Cake();
bake1(c);
System.out.println(c.model + andquot; andquot; + c.flavor);
bake2(c);
System.out.println(c.model + andquot; andquot; + c.flavor);
}
public static Cake bake1(Cake c) {
A. flavor = andquot;Strawberryandquot;;
B. model = 1200; return c; } public static void bake2(Cake c) {
C. flavor = andquot;Chocolateandquot;;
D. model = 1230; return; } } What is the result?
E. 0 unknown 0 unknown
F. 1200 Strawberry 1200 Strawberry
G. 1200 Strawberry 1230 Chocolate
H. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Give: What is the result?
A. 1525
B. 13
C. Compilation fails
D. An exception is thrown at runtime
E. The program fails to execute due to runtime error
1Z0-808 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Given:
public class TestField {
int x;
int y;
public void doStuff(int x, int y) {
this.x = x;
y =this.y;
}
public void display() {
System.out.print(x + andquot; andquot; + y + andquot; : andquot;);
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
TestField m1 = new TestField();
m1.x = 100;
m1.y = 200;
TestField m2 = new TestField();
m2.doStuff(m1.x, m1.y);
m1.display();
m2.display();
}
}
What is the result?
A. 100 200 : 100 200
B. 100 0 : 100 0 :
C. 100 200 : 100 0 :
D. 100 0 : 100 200 :
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which two are benefits of polymorphism?
A. Faster code at runtime
B. More efficient code at runtime
C. More dynamic code at runtime
D. More flexible and reusable code
E. Code that is protected from extension by other classes
1Z0-808 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 24
Given: public class X { static int i; int j;
public static void main(String[] args) {
X x1 = new X();
X x2 = new X();
x1.i = 3;
x1.j = 4;
x2.i = 5;
x2.j = 6;
System.out.println(
x1.i + andquot; andquot;+
x1.j + andquot; andquot;+
x2.i + andquot; andquot;+
x2.j);
}
}
What is the result?
A. 3 4 5 6
B. 3 4 3 6
C. 5 4 5 6
D. 3 6 4 6
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which statement is true about the default constructor of a top-level class?
A. It can take arguments.
B. It has private access modifier in its declaration.
C. It can be overloaded.
D. The default constructor of a subclass always invokes the no-argument constructor of its superclass.
1Z0-808 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Given:
What is the result?
A. 200.0 : 100.0
B. 400.0 : 200.0
C. 400.0 : 100.0
D. Compilation fails.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which two statements correctly describe checked exception?
A. These are exceptional conditions that a well-written application should anticipate and recover from.
B. These are exceptional conditions that are external to the application, and that the application usually cannot
anticipate or recover from.
C. These are exceptional conditions that are internal to the application, and that the application usually cannot anticipate
or recover from.
D. Every class that is a subclass of RuntimeException and Error is categorized as checked exception.
E. Every class that is a subclass of Exception, excluding RuntimeException and its subclasses, is categorized as
checked exception.
1Z0-808 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 28
Given the code fragment:
public class ForTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int[] array = {1, 2, 3};
for ( foo ) {
}
}
Which three code fragments, when replaced individually for foo, enables the program to compile?
A. int i : array
B. int i = 0; i andlt; 1;
C. ; ;
D. ; i andlt; 1; i++
E. i = 0; iandlt;1;
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 29
Given the code fragment:
class Student {
int rollnumber;
String name;
List cources = new ArrayList();
// insert code here
public String toString() {
return rollnumber + andquot; : andquot; + name + andquot; : andquot; + cources;
}
}
And,
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
List cs = newArrayList();
cs.add(andquot;Javaandquot;);
cs.add(andquot;Candquot;);
Student s = new Student(123,andquot;Fredandquot;, cs);
System.out.println(s);
}
}
Which code fragment, when inserted at line // insert code here, enables class Test to print 123 : Fred : [Java, C]?
A. private Student(int i, String name, List cs) { /* initialization code goes here */ }
B. public void Student(int i, String name, List cs) { /* initialization code goes here */ }
C. Student(int i, String name, List cs) { /* initialization code goes here */ }
D. Student(int i, String name, ArrayList cs) { /* initialization code goes here */ }
Correct Answer: C

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Free Pass4itsure VCE & PDF File for Oracle 1Z0-067 Dumps Real Exam Quetsions 1-16

QUESTION 1
You must unload data from the orders, order_items, and products database tables to four files using the External
Tables. CREATE TABLE orders_ext (order_id, order_date, product_id, product_name,quantity) ORGANIZATION EXTERNAL ( TYPE ORACLE_DATAPUMP DEFAULT DIRECTORY ext.dir LOCATION (`ordersl.dmp\’,\’orders2.dmp\’,\’orders3.dmp\’,\’lorders4.dmp\’) ) PARALLEL AS SELECT
o.order_id,o.order_date,p.product_id,p.product_name,i.quantity FROM orders o,productsp,order_itemsi WHERE
o.orderjd = i.order_id and i.product_id = p.product_id; You execute the command shown in the Exhibit, but only two files are created. Which parameter must be changed so that four files are created?
A. TYPE
B. LOCATION
C. PARALLEL
D. DEFAULT DIRECTORY
E. ORGANIZATION EXTERNAL
1Z0-067 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In your database, the tbs percent used parameter is set to 60 and the tbs percent free parameter is set to 20. Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement?
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier,
when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage
tier, when the source tablespace exceeds T3S percent used
D. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier,
when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
A user issues a query on the sales table and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file \’/u0l/app/oracle/oradata/ORCL/temp01.dbf\’ ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
Which two actions would you take to recover the temporary tablespace?
A. Drop the tenpOi.dbf file, and then re-create the temp file.
B. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the tempOi.dbf file.
C. Shut down the database instance, start up the database instance in mount state, create a new temporary tablespace, and then open the database.
D. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file, and then bring the temporary tablespace online.
E. Create a new temporary tablespace and assign it as the default to the user.
1Z0-067 dumps Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
You want to move your existing recovery catalog to another database.
Examine the steps:
1)Export the catalog data by using the Data Pump Export utility in the source database.
2) Create a recovery catalog user and grant the necessary privileges in the target database.
3) Create a recovery catalog by using the create catalog command.
4)Import the catalog data into the new recovery catalog by using the Data Pump Import utility in the target database.
5)Import the source recovery catalog schema by using the import catalog command.
6)Connect to the destination database.
7) Connect as catalog to the destination recovery catalog schema.
Identify the option with the correct sequence for moving the recovery catalog.
A. 1, 6, 4
B. 2, 3, 7, 5
C. 1, 2, 6, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 6, 5
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two are prerequisites for setting up Flashback Data Archive?
A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.
B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.
C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.
D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.
E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.
F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
1Z0-067 pdf Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 6
In which three scenarios is media recovery required?
A. when a tablespace is accidentally dropped from a database
B. when archived redo log files are lost
C. when data files are lost
D. when one of the online redo log members is corrupted
E. when all control files are lost
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7
Your multitenant container database (CDB) cdb1 that is running in archivelog mode contains two pluggable databases
(PDBs), pdb2_1 and pdb2_2, both of which are open. RMAN is connected to the target database pdb2_1. RMANandgt; BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;
Which statement is true about the execution of this command to back up the database?
A. All data files belonging to pdb2_1 are backed up and all archive log files are deleted.
B. All data files belonging to pdb2_1 are backed up along with the archive log files.
C. Only the data files belonging to pdb2_ are backed up.
D. This command gives an error because archive log files can be backed up only when RMAN is connected to the root
database.
1Z0-067 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Identify two scenarios in which the RMAN crosscheck command can be used.
A. when checking for backups that are not required as per the retention policy
B. when updating the RMAN repository if any of the archived redo log files have been deleted without using RMAN to do
the deletes
C. when updating outdated information about backups that disappeared from disk or media or became corrupted and
inaccessible
D. when synchronizing backups, which were not performed by using RMAN, with the RMAN repository
E. when listing backups that are required for recovery operations
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 9
Which three statements are true about persistent lightweight jobs?
A. A user cannot set privileges on them.
B. They generate large amounts of metadata.
C. They may be created as fully self-contained jobs.
D. They must reference an existing Scheduler Program.
E. The are useful when users need to create a large number of jobs quickly.
1Z0-067 exam Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 10
user_data is a nonencryptedtablespace containing tables with data.
You must encrypt ail data in this tablespace.
Which three methods can do this?
A. Use Data Pump.
B. Use ALTERTABLE. . .MOVE
C. Use CREATE TABLE AS SELECT
D. Use alter tablespace to encrypt the tablespace after enabling row movement on all its
E. Use altertablespace to encrypt the tablespace.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
You want to capture column group usage and gather extended statistics for better cardinality estimates for the customers table in the SH schema. Examine the following steps:
1. Issue the SELECTDBMS_STATS. CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS(`SH\’, \’CUSTOMERS\’)from dual statement.
2.Execute the dbms_stats.seed_col_usage (null,`SH\’,500) procedure.
3.Execute the required queries on the customers table.
4.Issue the select dbms_stats.reportwcol_usage(`SH\’, \’customers\’) from dual statement.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.
A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 3, 2, 4, 1
1Z0-067 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Examine the command to back up the ASM metadata:
ASMCMDandgt;md_backup /backup/ASM_backup
In which three situations can you use the backup?
A. when one or more disks in an ASM disk group are lost
B. when the data file on an ASM disk group gets corrupted
C. when one of the disks in a disk group is accidentally unplugged
D. when one or more file directory paths are accidentally deleted from an ASM disk group
E. when all the ASM disk groups for the ASM instance are lost
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 13
Identify three scenarios in which RMAN will use backup sets to perform active database duplication.
A. when the duplicate … from active database command contains the section size clause
B. when you perform active database duplication on a database with flashback disabled
C. when you specify set encryption before the duplicate … from active database command
D. when the number of auxiliary channels allocated is equal to or greater than the number of target channels
E. when you perform active database duplication on a database that has read-onlytablespaces
1Z0-067 pdf Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
Which two statements are true about scheduling operations in a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be defined only at the container database (CDB) level.
B. A job defined in a PDB runs only if that PDB is open.
C. Scheduler attribute setting is performed only at the CDB level.
D. Scheduler objects created by users can be exported or imported using Data Pump.
E. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be created only by common users.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 15
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
NAMETYPEVALUE —————————————————————————————————–
optimizer_adaptive_reporting_onlybooleanFALSE optimizer_capture_sql_plan_baselinesbooleanFALSE
optimizer_dynamic_samplinginteger2 optimizer_features_enablestring12.1.0.1
Which three statements are true about the process of automatic optimization by using statistics feedback?
A. The optimizer automatically changes a plan during subsequent execution of a SQL statement if there is a huge
difference in optimizer estimates and execution statistics.
B. The optimizer can re optimize a query only once using cardinality feedback.
C. The optimizer enables monitoring for cardinality feedback after the first execution of a query.
D. The optimizer does not monitor cardinality feedback if dynamic sampling and multicolumn statistics are enabled.
E. After the optimizer identifies a query as a re-optimization candidate, statistics collected by the collectors are submitted to the optimizer.
1Z0-067 vce Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 16
For your database, an incremental level 1 backup is taken every week day. On Tuesday, before the backup is performed, you add a new tablespace. You execute the command: RMANandgt; BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 FOR RECOVER OF COPY WITH TAG WEEKLY DATABASE; Which statement is true about the execution of the command?
A. It returns an error because there is no level 0 backup available for new data files.
B. It performs an image copy backup of new data files, and a level 1 incremental backup of all other data files.
C. It performs a level-0 backup of all data files including those that belong to the new tablespace.
D. It performs an image copy backup of all data files including those that belong to the new tablespace.
E. It performs a backup as a backup set of all data files including those that belong to the new tablespace.
Correct Answer: BC

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
A newly-hired member of the support team asks a senior administrator to explain Site Recovery Manager.How would the administrator explain the action Site Recovery Manager takes after a disaster or anticipation of a disaster-related event?
A. SRM automatically reboots specified ESXi servers and virtual machines in place at the local datacenter at the earliest opportunity.
B. SRM moves virtual machines to a public cloud provided by an approved by an approved third party provider.
C. SRM leverages vSphere Replication to automate the failover of virtual machines to another physical location.
D. Before the disaster event SRM replicates specified virtual machines at the recovery site and powers them on so that it can switch control to the recovery site virtual machines after a disaster.
1V0-603 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which vRealize Automation feature provides companies a lot of flexibility in using their own customized service politics and business logic?
A. Accelerated application deployment
B. Intelligent Resource Governor
C. VMware vRealize Orchestrator plug-in
D. Self-service end user portal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which vRealize Automation integrated product allows an administrator to easily automate workflows for provisioning decommissioning and the configuration of virtual workloads?
A. vRealize Operations
B. vRealize Operations
C. vCloud Connector
D. VMware NSX
1V0-603 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A consulting company has just won a contract to provide cloud infrastructure services for a regionally based department store. The contract requires the automation of workflows for running scripts on virtual machines as they are provisioned via the customer organization portal. Which two products will help achieve this task? (Choose two.)
A. vCenterSei”ver
B. vFabric Application Director
C. vRealize Orchestrator
D. vRealize Automation
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
A client wants their consultant to assure them that vRealize operationscan provide monitoring that will easy and dynamically adapt to their environment. What features in vRealize Operations can provide fewer more specific alerts of health degradations performance bottlenecks and capacity shortfalls?
A. Auto Reactive Alarms
B. Adaptive Alarms
C. Self-Learning Analytics
D. Dynamic Thresholds
1V0-603 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An administrator has installed and configured site RecoveryManager (SRM) to protect a private cloud infrastructure, but wants assurance that the plan put in place will actually work. How can the administrator properly test the site recovery manager setup?
A. Tell SRM to simulate moving your workloads usingvcloud connector.
B. Tell SRM to initiate an HA failover test.
C. Tell SRM to execute a non-disruptive recovery test.
D. Tell SRM tovMotion protected VMs to the recovery site.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A company is discussing the migration of their corporate data to the hybrid cloud and have asked a consultant to provide some justifications for making the move.Which two scenarios best show use cases for a hybrid cloud?( Choose two.)
A. You have a mixture of physical and virtual servers.
B. You want to occasionally move data between different corporate private clouds.
C. You want to periodically offload high demand development test cycles.
D. You are a small company and do not want to deal with your own datacenter and equipment.
1V0-603 vce Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
An administrator has a virtual machine with large amounts of data and wishes to protect it by replicating the data using the VMware Air disaster recovery service. A large amount of data would initially have to be transferred across the network before beginning replication. Which feature can the administrator utilize to minimize the amount of data transferred before beginning replication?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. Direct Connect
C. vCloud Connector: Data Migration Service
D. vCloudConnector: Offline Data Transfer
1V0-603 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator is developing a workflow for a company’s test and development environment and needs to run a script that will generator a work order ticket. Which VMware product provides out of the box plug ins to assist the administrator in completing this task?
A. vRealize Operations
B. vRealize Orchestrator
C. vCenter Server
D. vCloud Connector
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A company needs a solution that allows moving some of the datacenter’s workload to a public cloud during peak hours.The company does not want to pay for unused capacity during non-peak hours. Which VMware product will fulfill this task?
A. vRealize APIs
B. vCloud Connector
C. vRealize Automation
D. VMware NSX
1V0-603 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A company has recently bought out a competitor and is now integrating them into their existing architecture. Which VMware NSX component or feature will allow the company to place newly- created virtual machines on the best compute resources regardless of whether those resources are at the main site or the new branch location?
A. Edge Service Device
B. Distributed Router
C. VXLAN
D. Advanced Service Designer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A customer is concerned about using fixed alarm settings to monitor elastic cloud workloads. They want assurance that virtual workloads will be properly monitored in the cloud based on their environment’s realtime data. Which vRealize Operations alarm feature will best address this concern?
A. Auto Reactive Alarms
B. Adaptive Alarms
C. Self-Learning Analytics
D. Dynamic Thresholds
1V0-603 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The physical datacenter on which a company’s private cloud runs is nearing capacity. Which option would allow the company to temporarily move some of it’s workloads to a leased public cloud?
A. vRealize Operations
B. Site Recovery Manager
C. vFabric Suite
D. vCloud connector
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
An administrator wants to automatically manage virtual machine change requests and services as well as remove virtual machines when they are no longer needed. Which product includes a lifecycle management capability to help you accomplish these tasks?
A. vRealize Automation
B. vCenter Server
C. vRealize Operations
D. NSX Manager
1V0-603 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A company’s critical applications are installed directly on existing physical servers which could cause severe issues in the event of a failure.The company wants to mitigate any downtime due to hardware problems. What type of challenge is this describing?
A. Management
B. Elasicity
C. Availability
D. Efficiency
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
An intern inquires as to what factors should be considered when choosing one type of storage service class over another. What two criteria should be considered when creating storage service classes?
A. Level of protection
B. Cost
C. Number of platters
D. Operatingsystem compatibility
1V0-603 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
A company operates a hybrid cloud environment and wants to ensure all virtual machine andvApp templates deployed in any of it’s clouds come from a single catalog.Which product or technology supports this requirement?
A. vCloud Connector: Stretch Deploy
B. vFabric Suite
C. vCloud Connector: Datacenter Extension
D. vCloud Connector: Content Sync
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A consultant is explaining the benefits of using VMware NSX versus other products that utilize a physical networking infrastructure.Which two are benefits of implementing VMware NSX over other virtual network solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Non-disruptive server hardware upgrades
B. Reduced network provisioning time
C. No more physical switches
D. Non-disruptive deployment
1V0-603 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
A manager wants to know why traditional usage metering tools are less effective in a private cloud environment thanthey are in physical environments.What statement provides the best response?
A. Traditional monitoring tools won’t work in a cloud environment.
B. Traditional metering tools require agents to be installed, which don’t work in virtual machines.
C. Resource usage is based on the overall demand of all virtual machines instead of per server.
D. This is not true, traditional usage metering tools are still the best choice.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A company has decided to move to a hybrid cloud environment.They are concerned that this may increase management complexity by requiring multiple interfaces.Which product provides a single interface for all virtual machines within a hybrid cloud environment?
A. vCenter Server
B. vFabric Suite
C. vCloud Connector
D. VMware NSX
1V0-603 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
A company has a multi-tier application and needs a deployment solution that will take into account CPU and memory requirements, while ensuring that the security of each workload can be protected using dynamic firewalls.Which two products will meet the company’s needs? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Replication
B. vRealize Automation
C. vRealize Operations
D. VMware NSX
Correct Answer: BD
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QUESTION 1
When using rpm –verify to check files created during the installation of RPM packages, which of the following information is taken into consideration? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Timestamps
B. MD5 checksums
C. Inodes
D. File sizes
E. GnuPG signatures
101-400 exam Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which of the following commands can be used to download the RPM package kernel without installing it?
A. yum download –no-install kernel
B. yumdownloader kernel
C. rpm –download –package kernel
D. rpmdownload kernel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is correct when talking about mount points?
A. Every existing directory can be used as a mount point.
B. Only empty directories can be used as a mount point.
C. Directories need to have the SetUID flag set to be used as a mount point.
D. Files within a directory are deleted when the directory is used as a mount point.
101-400 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are valid stream redirection operators within Bash? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. andlt;
B. andlt;andlt;andlt;
C. andgt;
D. andgt;andgt;andgt;
E. %andgt;
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Which function key is used to start Safe Mode in Windows NT?
A. F10
B. F8
C. F6
D. Windows NT does not support Safe Mode
101-400 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following commands moves and resumes in the background the last stopped shell job?
A. run
B. bg
C. fg
D. back
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Immediately after deleting 3 lines of text in vi and moving the cursor to a different line, which single character command
will insert the deleted content below the current line?
A. i (lowercase)
B. P (uppercase)
C. p (lowercase)
D. U (uppercase)
E. u (lowercase)
101-400 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following characters can be combined with a separator string in order to read from the current input source
until the separator string, which is on a separate line and without any trailing spaces, is reached?
A. andlt;andlt;
B. andlt;|
C. !andlt;
D. andamp;andlt;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands lists the dependencies of a given dpkg package?
A. apt-cache depends-on package
B. apt-cache dependencies package
C. apt-cache depends package
D. apt-cache requires package
101-400 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
After running the command umount /mnt, the following error message is displayed: umount: /mnt: device is busy. What is a common reason for this message?
A. The kernel has not finished flushing disk writes to the mounted device.
B. A user has a file open in the /mnt directory.
C. Another file system still contains a symlink to a file inside /mnt.
D. The files in /mnt have been scanned and added to the locate database.
E. The kernel thinks that a process is about to open a file in /mnt for reading.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade
C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade
101-400 dumps correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which RPM command will output the name of the package which supplied the file /etc/exports?
A. rpm -F /etc/exports
B. rpm -qf /etc/exports
C. rpm -Kl /etc/exports
D. rpm -qp /etc/exports
E. rpm -qi /etc/exports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following commands changes the number of days before the ext3 filesystem on /dev/sda1 has to run through a full filesystem check while booting?
A. tune2fs -d 200 /dev/sda1
B. tune2fs -c 200 /dev/sda1
C. tune2fs -i 200 /dev/sda1
D. tune2fs -n 200 /dev/sda1
E. tune2fs –days 200 /dev/sda1
101-400 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which of the following options is used in a GRUB Legacy configuration file to define the amount of time that the GRUB menu will be shown to the user?
A. hidemenu
B. splash
C. timeout
D. showmenu
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is the device file name for the second partition on the only SCSI drive?
A. /dev/hda1
B. /dev/sda2
C. /dev/sd0a2
D. /dev/sd1p2
101-400 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands will send output from the program myapp to both standard output (stdout) and the file file1.log?
A. cat andlt; myapp | cat andgt; file1.log
B. myapp 0andgt;andamp;1 | cat andgt; file1.log
C. myapp | cat andgt; file1.log
D. myapp | tee file1.log
E. tee myapp file1.log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
What does the command mount -a do?
A. It ensures that all file systems listed with the option noauto in /etc/fstab are mounted.
B. It shows all mounted file systems that have been automatically mounted.
C. It opens an editor with root privileges and loads /etc/fstab for editing.
D. It ensures that all file systems listed with the option auto in /etc/fstab are mounted.
E. It ensures that all file systems listed in /etc/fstab are mounted regardless of their options.
101-400 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following environment variables overrides or extends the list of directories holding shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will copy the current line into the vi buffer?
A. c
B. cc
C. 1c D. yy
E. 1y
101-400 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
What command will generate a list of user names from /etc/passwd along with their login shell?
A. column -s : 1,7 /etc/passwd
B. chop -c 1,7 /etc/passwd
C. colrm 1,7 /etc/passwd
D. cut -d: -f1,7 /etc/passwd
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
What is the purpose of the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard?
A. It is a security model used to ensure files are organized according to their permissions and accessibility.
B. It provides unified tools to create, maintain and manage multiple filesystems in a common way.
C. It defines a common internal structure of inodes for all compliant filesystems.
D. It is a distribution neutral description of locations of files and directories.
101-400 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
A. silent
B. verbose=0
C. nomesg
D. quiet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
In a nested directory structure, which find command line option would be used to restrict the command to searching down a particular number of subdirectories?
A. -dirmax
B. -maxdepth
C. -maxlevels
D. -n
E. -s
101-400 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which of the following commands creates an ext3 filesystem on /dev/sdb1? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. /sbin/mke2fs -j /dev/sdb1
B. /sbin/mkfs -t ext3 /dev/sdb1
C. /sbin/mkfs -c ext3 /dev/sdb1
D. /sbin/mke3fs -j /dev/sdb1
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which of the following options for the kernel\’s command line changes the systemd boot target to rescue.target instead of the default target?
A. systemd.target=rescue.target
B. systemd.runlevel=rescue.target
C. systemd.service=rescue.target
D. systemd.default=rescue.target
E. systemd.unit=rescue.target
101-400 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Boot device order
B. Linux kernel version
C. Timezone
D. Hardware configuration
E. The system\’s hostname
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which of the following commands updates the linker cache of shared libraries?
A. mkcache
B. soconfig
C. mkldconfig
D. lddconfig
E. ldconfig
101-400 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 28
Which of the following commands will write a message to the terminals of all logged in users?
A. bcast
B. mesg
C. print
D. wall
E. yell
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the directories are man pages found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /var/man
101-400 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which of the following commands prints a list of usernames (first column) and their primary group (fourth column) from
the /etc/passwd file?
A. fmt -f 1,4 /etc/passwd
B. split -c 1,4 /etc/passwd
C. cut -d : -f 1,4 /etc/passwd
D. paste -f 1,4 /etc/passwd
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
In the vi editor, how can commands such as moving the cursor or copying lines into the buffer be issued multiple times
or applied to multiple rows?
A. By using the command :repeat followed by the number and the command.
B. By specifying the number right in front of a command such as 4l or 2yj.
C. By selecting all affected lines using the shift and cursor keys before applying the command.
D. By issuing a command such as :set repetition=4 which repeats every subsequent command 4 times.
101-400 vce Correct Answer: B

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